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Indication for dihydrotachysterol administration is:
- A. Parathyroid hormone resistance
- B. Paget's disease
- C. Increased osteolysis
- D. Hypophosphatemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for correct answer (A):
1. Dihydrotachysterol is a vitamin D analog used to treat parathyroid hormone resistance.
2. Parathyroid hormone resistance leads to impaired calcium absorption and bone mineralization.
3. Dihydrotachysterol helps increase calcium absorption and bone mineralization in these patients.
Summary of incorrect choices:
- B: Paget's disease is typically treated with bisphosphonates or calcitonin, not dihydrotachysterol.
- C: Increased osteolysis is not a direct indication for dihydrotachysterol administration.
- D: Hypophosphatemia is usually treated with phosphate supplements, not dihydrotachysterol.
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What does the term “potentiation” mean?
- A. Cumulative ability of a drug
- B. Hypersensitivity to a drug
- C. Fast tolerance developing
- D. Intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The term "potentiation" refers to the intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination. This is the correct answer because potentiation occurs when one drug enhances the effects of another drug when taken together. It's important to note that potentiation is different from cumulative ability (A), which refers to the build-up of a drug's effects over time. It is also distinct from hypersensitivity (B), which is an exaggerated response to a drug due to individual factors. Additionally, potentiation is not the same as fast tolerance developing (C), which is when the body becomes less responsive to a drug with repeated use. In summary, the correct answer, option D, best describes the concept of potentiation in pharmacology.
Probucol (Lorelco) reduces the risk of atherosclerosis by stimulating the rate of clearance of LDL by receptor-mediated pathways. This consideration is:
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. All
- D. None
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Probucol does not stimulate the rate of clearance of LDL by receptor-mediated pathways.
2. Probucol works by increasing HDL levels and reducing LDL oxidation.
3. Therefore, the statement that Probucol stimulates LDL clearance is false.
4. Choice B is correct as it accurately reflects the mechanism of action of Probucol.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as Probucol does not stimulate LDL clearance.
- Choice C is incorrect as not all statements are true.
- Choice D is incorrect as the statement is false.
Correct the statements concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. It inhibits COX
- B. It is as effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain
- C. It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse
- D. It does not produce respiratory depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that does not have a high potential for physical dependence and abuse like opioids.
A: It inhibits COX, reducing inflammation and pain.
B: It is effective for short-term pain relief but is not as potent as morphine.
D: It does not produce respiratory depression, which is a common side effect of opioids.
In summary, C is incorrect as ketorolac is not associated with physical dependence and abuse, making it a safer option compared to opioids for pain management.
A drug causes muscarinic receptor blockade. The nurse will assess the patient for
- A. dry mouth.
- B. gynecomasti
- C. pseudoparkinsonism.
- D. orthostatic hypotension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: dry mouth. Muscarinic receptor blockade inhibits parasympathetic nervous system activity, leading to decreased secretion of saliva. This causes dry mouth. Gynecomastia (choice B) is unrelated to muscarinic receptor blockade. Pseudoparkinsonism (choice C) is associated with dopamine receptor blockade, not muscarinic receptors. Orthostatic hypotension (choice D) is more commonly seen with alpha-adrenergic receptor blockade.
The nurse is conducting a smoking-cessation program. Which statement regarding drugs used in cigarette-smoking–cessation programs is true?
- A. Rapid chewing of the nicotine gum releases an immediate dose of nicotine.
- B. Quick relief from withdrawal symptoms is most easily achieved by using a transdermal patch.
- C. Compliance with treatment is higher with use of the gum rather than the transdermal patch.
- D. The nicotine gum can be used only up to six times per day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because rapid chewing of nicotine gum releases an immediate dose of nicotine, providing quick relief during cravings. This immediate effect helps manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Option B is incorrect as transdermal patches provide a steady release of nicotine over time, not quick relief. Option C is incorrect; compliance is similar for both gum and patches. Option D is incorrect as the nicotine gum can be used up to 20-30 times per day, not just six.