Nokea
Individuals with Down Syndrome often have moderate to severe intellectual impairment with a measurable IQ usually between:
- A. 45-50
- B. 55-60
- C. 35-55
- D. 25-35
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Down Syndrome: A disorder caused by an extra chromosome 21, characterized by intellectual impairment with IQ typically between 35-55.
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An older adult patient who lives with a daughter and attends the Alzheimer day hospital program exhibits bilateral bruising for the second time on both upper outer arms. When the nurse questions the patient about the bruising, the patient starts to cry and pleads, 'Please don't say anything. It's not my daughter's fault. I just bruise easily.' Which intervention reflects the best management of this situation?
- A. Call the daughter to discuss both the bruising and her parent's reaction.
- B. Report the elder abuse, and inform the patient and the daughter of your intention.
- C. Notify the patient's social worker of the bruising after a complete assessment has been completed.
- D. Inform the patient and the daughter of your intention to document the bruising and arrange for appropriate counseling.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report the elder abuse and inform the patient and the daughter of your intention. This is the best intervention as it prioritizes the safety and well-being of the older adult. Here's the rationale:
1. The patient's repeated bruising and fear of disclosure indicate potential abuse.
2. Reporting elder abuse is mandatory to ensure protection for the patient.
3. Informing the patient and daughter shows transparency and involves them in the process.
4. It is crucial to address the situation promptly to prevent further harm.
Summary:
A: Calling the daughter may escalate the situation and compromise the patient's safety.
C: Notifying the social worker without addressing the abuse directly may delay necessary action.
D: Counseling may be beneficial, but addressing the abuse is a priority to ensure the patient's safety.
Which complication is most likely in a patient with bulimia nervosa who purges frequently?
- A. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
- B. Increased appetite and weight gain.
- C. Improved digestion and nutrient absorption.
- D. High blood pressure and rapid heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Purging in bulimia nervosa involves self-induced vomiting or misuse of laxatives, leading to fluid and electrolyte loss. This can result in dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and potentially life-threatening complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Increased appetite and weight gain (B) are less likely due to purging. Improved digestion and nutrient absorption (C) are not associated with frequent purging. High blood pressure and rapid heart rate (D) may occur in severe cases but are not the most likely complication.
Which assessment findings would alert the nurse that an older patient may have an increased risk for development of geriatric alcohol abuse? Select one tha does not apply.
- A. Mild recent memory impairment
- B. Eighth grade education
- C. Death of spouse
- D. Retirement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Geriatric problem drinking often begins in response to stressors like retirement (D), loss of spouse (C), and loneliness (E), with risk factors including less than high school education (B). Mild memory impairment (A) is not a predisposing factor.
The mother of a teenager diagnosed with an eating disorder asks, 'How long will my daughter have this problem?' The nurse answers with the knowledge that:
- A. recovery is usual after one severe episode.
- B. less than 30% show improvement after 5 years.
- C. weight restoration is sufficient for recovery.
- D. long-term therapy combined with medication results in the best outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because long-term therapy combined with medication results in the best outcomes for individuals with eating disorders. Therapy helps address underlying psychological issues, while medication can help manage symptoms. Recovery is a complex process that often requires ongoing support. Choice A is incorrect as recovery is not always guaranteed after one severe episode. Choice B is incorrect as many individuals do show improvement over time. Choice C is incorrect as weight restoration alone may not address all aspects of the disorder.
The outcome that should be established for an elderly patient with delirium caused by fever and dehydration is that the patient will:
- A. Return to a premorbid level of functioning.
- B. Demonstrate motor responses to noxious stimuli.
- C. Identify stressors negatively affecting self.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the goal in managing delirium in an elderly patient is to restore them to their premorbid level of functioning. This involves addressing the underlying causes like fever and dehydration. Option B is incorrect as it focuses on a neurological response rather than the overall outcome for the patient. Option C is also incorrect as it pertains to identifying stressors, which is not the primary goal in managing delirium. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of restoring the patient to their baseline level of functioning.