Is it necessary to continue to strain the urine of a client with kidney stones since several stones were obtained the previous day?
- A. UAPs should follow the prescribed care without questioning it
- B. Yes, it is important to continue straining all the client's urine
- C. Measuring intake and output is equally important as straining the urine
- D. Ensuring that the client is free from pain should be the top priority
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Yes, it is important to continue straining all urine to catch any remaining stones. Straining the urine helps in identifying any new stones that may have formed, allowing for appropriate management. While measuring intake and output is important, straining the urine is specifically necessary in this case to monitor the presence of kidney stones. Ensuring the client is free from pain is essential, but in this situation, preventing further complications related to kidney stones is a higher priority.
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Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?
- A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
- B. Excess fluid volume
- C. Fatigue
- D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.
While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?
- A. Consuming a high-fat diet
- B. Using tanning beds
- C. Smoking cigarettes
- D. Drinking alcohol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.
A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?
- A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
- B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
- C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
- D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.
The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml. How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours?
- A. 10 ml
- B. 12.5 ml
- C. 15 ml
- D. 17.5 ml
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first, determine the total daily dose: 1.5 grams = 1500 mg. Since the medication is 200 mg/5 ml, for 1500 mg, the nurse needs to administer 1500/200 = 7.5 times the 5 ml dose. Therefore, 7.5 x 5 ml = 37.5 ml total daily dose. To administer this every 8 hours, divide 37.5 ml by 3 (8 hours intervals in a day) to get 12.5 ml to be administered every 8 hours. Choice A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the dose based on the prescription and the available concentration.
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