Nokea
It is a secondary dementia indicated by loss of recent memory and disorientation to time and place.
- A. Alzheimer's disease.
- B. Vascular dementia.
- C. Lewy body dementia.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's disease is a common type of dementia characterized by progressive cognitive decline, including loss of recent memory and disorientation to time and place. This is due to the accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain. Vascular dementia (B) is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to cognitive impairment. Lewy body dementia (C) is characterized by the presence of abnormal protein deposits called Lewy bodies in the brain. Choosing D (None of the above) would be incorrect as Alzheimer's disease specifically matches the description provided in the question.
You may also like to solve these questions
A normal person sees flashes of light while falling asleep. These are examples of
- A. Hypnopompic hallucinations
- B. Eidetic imagery
- C. Visual hallucinations
- D. Complex hallucinations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flashes of light while falling asleep are hypnagogic visual hallucinations, a normal phenomenon, though 'visual hallucinations' is the closest match here.
A student nurse visiting a senior center says, 'Its depressing to see these old people. They are weak and frail. I doubt any of them can engage in a discussion.' The student is expressing:
- A. reality
- B. ageism
- C. empathy
- D. vulnerability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ageism is a bias against older people because of their age. None of the other options applies to the ideas expressed by the student.
A man who reports frequently experiencing premature ejaculation tells the nurse, 'I feel like such a failure. It's so awful for both me and my partner. Can you help me?' Select the nurse's best response.
- A. Have you discussed this problem with your partner?
- B. I can refer you to a practitioner who can help you with this problem.
- C. Have you asked your health care provider for prescription medication?
- D. There are several techniques described in this pamphlet that might be helpful.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should refer the patient to a practitioner who specializes in treating premature ejaculation. This is the best response as it ensures the patient receives specialized care and treatment tailored to his needs. Referring to a specialist increases the likelihood of successful intervention and addresses the patient's concerns effectively.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A focuses on communication with the partner, which is important but not the primary intervention for premature ejaculation. Choice C suggests prescription medication without exploring other treatment options or assessing the patient's individual situation. Choice D provides general information without addressing the patient's emotional distress or offering specific help from a professional.
A patient with schizophrenia has received typical (first-generation) antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but he remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated. To address these symptoms, the nurse might consult the prescribing health care provider to suggest a change to:
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol).
- B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic that has been shown to effectively target negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as apathy, poverty of thought, and social isolation. It also helps with mood stabilization and cognitive function, which can improve the patient's ability to work and engage in social interactions.
Choice A: Haloperidol (Haldol) is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic like the current medication, which is less effective in treating negative symptoms and can potentially worsen them.
Choice C: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine and not indicated for treating schizophrenia symptoms.
Choice D: Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is another typical (first-generation) antipsychotic, similar to the current medication, and may not adequately address the negative symptoms the patient is experiencing.
A patient with schizophrenia repeatedly asks for directions and the time of day. The nurse should:
- A. repeat the information in a kind, matter-of-fact manner.
- B. write out the information so the patient can easily refer to it.
- C. tell the patient that the habit of frequent questioning is annoying.
- D. provide the information once and then remind the patient that the question was already asked.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients with schizophrenia may have cognitive impairments affecting memory and orientation, leading to repetitive questioning. By repeating information in a kind, matter-of-fact manner, the nurse can address the patient's needs without causing distress.
Choice B may be helpful, but verbal reinforcement is essential for immediate clarification. Choice C is incorrect as it may exacerbate the patient's distress and worsen the therapeutic relationship. Choice D does not address the underlying cognitive issue and may come across as dismissive.