Chronic Disease Questions

Chronic Disease Questions Related

Review Chronic Disease Questions related questions and content

It is the start of your second successive night shift on the labour ward. You have only managed to sleep for 4 h in the previous day. Your usual sleep requirement is 8 h per night. Appropriate statements regarding this situation include:

  • A. Your total cumulative sleep deficit is 8 h.
  • B. Your alertness will increase between 3 a.m. and 7 a.m. due to natural fluctuation in your circadian rhythm.
  • C. Unintentional dural puncture during epidural insertion is more likely to occur during a night shift than during normal working hours.
  • D. Sleeping for an extra 4 h will eliminate the sleep deficit.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Night shifts disrupt sleep and performance. After one night with 4 hours sleep (8-hour need), the deficit is 4 hours; a second night compounds it variably, but total' implies current state 8 hours overstates it without further context. Alertness dips 3-7 a.m. (circadian nadir), not increases, heightening fatigue. Night-shift studies (e.g., anaesthesia journals) show increased errors like dural puncture due to fatigue, reduced dexterity, and decision-making capacity, especially with sleep deprivation. Four extra hours reduce, not eliminate, a deficit if it's 4-12 hours cumulatively. Modafinil promotes wakefulness, not daytime sleep. The night-shift risk of dural puncture reflects fatigue's real-world impact on technical skills.

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A 58-year-old woman with chronic gout is visiting the dietitian and the correct dietary advice given is:

  • A. To stop fried food and eat fish for better gout control
  • B. To increase fructose drinks as it removes uric acid from urine
  • C. Avoid soybeans and plant proteins
  • D. Stop alcohol and reduce animal protein
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Gout diet cut booze, meat; fructose spikes uric, soy's fine, mushrooms hurt, cherries help. Nurses steer this chronic food fix.

A client is receiving treatment for the diagnosis of hemophilia A. Which of the following is the most appropriate to include in the assessment of this client?

  • A. Cranial nerves
  • B. Appetite
  • C. Joint pain and bruising
  • D. Urine output
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hemophilia A, a factor VIII deficiency, impairs clotting joint pain and bruising from hemarthrosis and bleeds are hallmark signs, demanding assessment to gauge bleeding severity and guide factor replacement. Cranial nerves check neurologic status, irrelevant unless bleeds hit the brain. Appetite or urine output offers general insight, not hemophilia-specific. Nurses zero in on joints and skin, tracking this genetic disorder's impact, critical for managing acute episodes and preventing long-term damage in this bleeding-prone client.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning gestational diabetes?

  • A. Most commonly developed in the first trimester of pregnancy
  • B. Affects 8% of pregnant women
  • C. Maternal blood glucose levels will return to normal shortly after birth
  • D. There is a high risk of developing type 2 diabetes by the mother within 20 years
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Gestational diabetes hits late second or third trimester, not first insulin resistance peaks then, a pregnancy twist. Eight percent's close, glucose norms post-birth, type 2 risk looms 20 years fits. Nurses catch this timing, a chronic precursor's true window.

Diabetes mellitus can cause damage to the microvasculature and macrovasculature. Question: The microvasculature is involved in which of the following disorders?

  • A. Nephropathy
  • B. Retinopathy
  • C. Polyneuropathy
  • D. All answers are correct
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Diabetes' micro hits kidneys, eyes, nerves all bleed small, no dodge. Nurses track this, a chronic tiny vessel trio.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a 15-year-old who is being treated for acute myelogenous leukemia about the side effects of chemotherapy. For which of the following symptoms should the parents seek medical care immediately?

  • A. Earache, stiff neck or sore throat
  • B. Blisters, ulcers or a rash appear
  • C. A temperature of 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit
  • D. Difficulty or pain when swallowing
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chemotherapy for acute myelogenous leukemia suppresses the immune system by reducing white blood cell production, leaving the child highly susceptible to infections. A fever of 101.5°F is a critical sign in this context, as it may indicate an infection that, without a functioning immune response, could rapidly progress to sepsis a life-threatening condition. Parents must seek immediate medical care to evaluate and treat the underlying cause, often requiring emergency department intervention. While earache, stiff neck, or sore throat could suggest infection, they are less urgent without fever and may not necessitate immediate action unless severe. Blisters, ulcers, or rashes might reflect chemotherapy side effects like mucositis or drug reactions, manageable with outpatient care unless infected. Difficulty swallowing could stem from mucositis or infection, but fever trumps it in urgency due to its systemic implications. Educating parents to prioritize fever ensures timely intervention, aligning with oncology nursing's focus on preventing complications in immunocompromised pediatric patients.

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