Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers

Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Related

Review Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers related questions and content

Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to

  • A. Cancel the transfer and keep her in the ICU
  • B. Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma
  • C. Repeat the labs the next day
  • D. Prepare for reoperation
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma. Given Janet's post-hepatic resection status and abnormal lab values indicating liver dysfunction (elevated bilirubin, low albumin, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated AST and ALT), she is at risk for coagulopathy and hypoalbuminemia. Infusing albumin can help improve her oncotic pressure and fluid balance, while fresh frozen plasma can replenish clotting factors to address the prolonged prothrombin time. This intervention aims to stabilize her condition before transferring to the general medical floor.

Canceling the transfer (Choice A) is not necessary if appropriate interventions can be taken. Repeating labs the next day (Choice C) delays potentially needed treatments. Preparing for reoperation (Choice D) is not indicated based on the information provided.

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Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor

  • A. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate despite good uterine contractions
  • B. That is concluded in more than three hours
  • C. That is concluded in less than three hours
  • D. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.

Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for:

  • A. Antepartum eclampsia
  • B. Presence of stroke
  • C. Pre-existing epilepsy
  • D. Postpartum eclampsia
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.

The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to

  • A. Control growth of organisms
  • B. Keep client well hydrated
  • C. Maintain proper fluid balance
  • D. Facilitate proper healing
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma are at risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss.
Step 2: Encouraging plenty of fluids helps maintain hydration levels.
Step 3: Proper hydration supports kidney function and aids in flushing out bacteria, reducing infection risk.
Step 4: Adequate hydration also promotes tissue healing and prevents complications.
Step 5: Therefore, the main aim of encouraging plenty of fluids is to keep the client well hydrated.

What are the risks of a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean)?

  • A. Uterine rupture
  • B. Postpartum hemorrhage
  • C. Placenta previa
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rupture. This is the most significant risk associated with VBAC, where the scar from the previous cesarean section may tear during labor. This can lead to severe complications for both the mother and baby. Postpartum hemorrhage (B) and placenta previa (C) are potential risks in any pregnancy but are not specifically increased in VBAC. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it directly relates to the unique risk of VBAC.

Which one of the following features is indicative of an abnormal labour pattern?

  • A. Presence of the retraction ring
  • B. Presence of the Bandl’s ring
  • C. Cervical canal short and thin
  • D. Vagina is warm and moist
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention.

A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments.
C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern.
D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.

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