Nokea
Kobby, who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1, displays symptoms of hypoglycemia; which of the following actions should the nurse instruct the parents to take?
- A. Give the child honey (simple sugar)
- B. Give the child milk (complex sugar)
- C. Contact the healthcare provider before doing anything
- D. Give the child nothing by mouth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During hypoglycemia, it is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Giving a simple sugar like honey is recommended as it can rapidly increase blood sugar levels and alleviate the symptoms of hypoglycemia in individuals with diabetes mellitus type 1. Milk, being a complex sugar, will not act as quickly as honey in raising blood sugar levels. Contacting the healthcare provider may lead to a delay in treatment, as immediate action is necessary during hypoglycemia. Withholding food or drink (choice D) is not appropriate when dealing with hypoglycemia as it can worsen the condition.
You may also like to solve these questions
In the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses, one of the things to look for is danger signs. Which of the following will you consider a danger sign in a child?
- A. The child vomits everything
- B. A child with diarrhea
- C. A child with headache
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The child vomits everything.' Vomiting everything is considered a danger sign in a child as it can lead to dehydration and other serious complications. Recognizing this sign early can help in timely intervention and management of the child's condition. Choices B and C are incorrect as diarrhea and headache, while concerning, are not specific danger signs highlighted in the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses.
What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?
- A. Tepid sponging
- B. Oral hygiene
- C. Eye care
- D. N/A
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.
What comment made by a parent of a 1-month-old would alert the nurse about the presence of a congenital heart defect?
- A. He is always hungry.
- B. He tires out during feedings.
- C. He is fussy for several hours every day.
- D. He sleeps all the time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Observing a 1-month-old tiring out during feedings should alert the nurse to the possibility of a congenital heart defect. This symptom may indicate that the infant is expending excess energy to compensate for a heart issue, leading to fatigue during feeding. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to a congenital heart defect. Being always hungry, fussy, or sleeping a lot are not specific signs of a congenital heart defect in a 1-month-old.
Beta-adrenergic agonists such as Salbutamol are given to Reggie, a child with asthma. Such drugs are administered primarily to do which of the following?
- A. Dilate the bronchioles
- B. Reduce secondary infections
- C. Decrease postnasal drip
- D. Reduce airway inflammation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic agonists like Salbutamol are used to dilate the bronchioles in asthma patients. This action helps in relieving bronchospasms and improving airflow to the lungs, making breathing easier for the individual. While reducing inflammation is an essential part of asthma management, beta-adrenergic agonists primarily work by relaxing the smooth muscles around the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because beta-adrenergic agonists are not primarily used to reduce secondary infections, decrease postnasal drip, or directly reduce airway inflammation in asthma patients.
A mother visited your facility with the complaint of her child passing watery stools for two days. This is the first time the child is having such an experience. How will you describe such a visit?
- A. Initial
- B. Follow-up
- C. Routine visit
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Initial.' This visit is described as initial because it is the first time the child is experiencing these symptoms. It signifies the first encounter with healthcare professionals for this specific issue, distinguishing it from subsequent visits which would be follow-up appointments to monitor progress or routine visits for preventive care. Choice B, 'Follow-up,' is incorrect as it implies subsequent visits after the initial encounter. Choice C, 'Routine visit,' is also incorrect as it implies a scheduled visit for preventive care rather than a visit prompted by a new or acute issue. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as one of the options accurately describes the situation, which is 'Initial.'