Nokea
Laboratory confirmation of the diagnosis in Question 1 can best be obtained by measuring the toxic compound's concentration in which of the following?
- A. Urine
- B. Blood
- C. Hair
- D. Saliva
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mercury levels are most accurately measured in urine, especially in cases of chronic exposure.
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Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of infancy, occurring more in full-term infants. Of the following, the most common risk factor of development of hemangioma is
- A. male infant
- B. female infant
- C. infant of diabetic mother
- D. infant delivered by cesarean section
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Female infants are at higher risk for developing hemangiomas.
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. 30-year old woman taking contraceptives
- B. 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant
- C. 40-year old woman with three children
- D. 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the major risk factors for ovarian cancer is nulliparity, which means never having been pregnant. This is because pregnancy and childbirth have a protective effect against ovarian cancer. Women who have never been pregnant are at a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to women who have had children. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the risk increasing as women get older. Therefore, the 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant has the highest risk of ovarian cancer among the given clients.
Which is true of a Wilms tumor? (Select all that apply.)
- A. It is also referred to as neuroblastoma.
- B. It is most commonly seen between the ages of 2 and 5 years.
- C. It can occur on its own or be associated with congenital anomalies.
- D. It is a slow-growing tumor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wilms tumor typically occurs in children aged 2-5 years and may be associated with congenital anomalies. It is not the same as neuroblastoma, and its prognosis is generally good with treatment.
A 10 years old girl presented with fever and bruises for last 2 weeks. On examination she is pale; however there is no evidence of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her Hb is 6g/dl, TLC is 2700 and platelets are 90000. The most appropriate investigation to clinch the diagnosis is:
- A. Bone marrow aspiration
- B. Retics count
- C. Bleeding time
- D. PT and APTT
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bone marrow aspiration is essential to rule out conditions like aplastic anemia or leukemia, which could explain the symptoms and lab findings.
Use of condoms of those found to be infected with HIV
- A. 1 & 3
- B. 3 & 4
- C. 2 & 3 SITUATION; Mr. Baldo , 36 years old patient complaints of fatigue, weight loss, and low-grade fever. He also has pa in his fingers, elbows, and ankles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the given scenario involving Mr. Baldo presenting with symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, and joint pain in fingers, elbows, and ankles, it is suggested that he may potentially have rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, options 3 and 4 are the correct choices. Option 3 mentions the administration of NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) for pain management, which is a common treatment approach for rheumatoid arthritis to help reduce inflammation and manage pain. Option 4 suggests consulting a rheumatologist for further evaluation and management, which is crucial in determining the appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan for Mr. Baldo's condition.