Nokea
Laboratory findings indicate that a client's serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
- B. Prepare to administer a glucose-insulin-potassium replacement.
- C. Change the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement.
- D. Instruct the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. The immediate action the nurse should take is to inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement. Option B, preparing to administer glucose-insulin-potassium replacement, is not the first-line intervention; it may be considered in specific situations but requires a healthcare provider's prescription. Option C, changing the plan of care to include hourly urinary output measurement, is not the priority when managing critically low potassium levels. Option D, instructing the client to increase daily intake of potassium-rich foods, is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate intervention is needed to address the dangerously low potassium level.
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What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering bronchodilators.
- B. Administering antibiotics.
- C. Administering IV fluids.
- D. Administering corticosteroids.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.
The client is receiving teletherapy radiation for a malignant tumor. Which instruction regarding skin care of the portal site should the nurse provide?
- A. Protect the skin of the radiation portal site from sunlight exposure
- B. Apply moisturizing lotions daily to the radiation portal site
- C. Avoid washing the skin inside the radiation portal site
- D. Remove the ink marks of the portal after each radiation treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the skin from sunlight exposure is crucial to prevent radiation burns and additional skin damage at the treatment site. Sun exposure can exacerbate skin reactions caused by radiation therapy. Applying moisturizing lotions daily may introduce foreign substances or irritants to the treated area, leading to potential complications. Washing the skin inside the radiation portal site is important for maintaining cleanliness and preventing infections. Removing the ink marks after each treatment is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary skin irritation and trauma.
A client with chronic renal failure is being treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Hyponatremia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, which is then eliminated through the feces. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is not associated with causing hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypocalcemia.
The client who experiences angina has been advised to follow a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following meals would be best?
- A. Hamburger, salad, and milkshake.
- B. Baked liver, green beans, and coffee.
- C. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee.
- D. Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best meal option for a client with angina following a low-cholesterol diet is spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee. This meal is lower in cholesterol content compared to the other options provided. Hamburger with salad and milkshake, baked liver with green beans and coffee, and fried chicken with green beans and skim milk are higher in cholesterol and may not be suitable for an individual with angina who needs to adhere to a low-cholesterol diet.
In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?
- A. Elevated liver enzymes.
- B. Low albumin levels.
- C. Elevated bilirubin levels.
- D. Low platelet count.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.