Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:
- A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
- B. it is available in a single 25 mg tablet, which makes dosing simple.
- C. it is not a prodrug.
- D. it has a short half-life.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine is safe and effective with virtually no side effects when dosed properly. A single, daily dose is possible because of the long half-life (7 days). Levothyroxine tablets are available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements. Levothyroxine (T4) is a prodrug of T3.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 125 mL/min
- C. 125 mL/hr
- D. 80 mL/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To determine the correct infusion rate, divide the total volume of fluids (1,000 mL) by the total infusion time (8 hours), resulting in a rate of 125 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the appropriate administration of fluids over the specified time period. Choice A (100 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate based on the given information. Choice B (125 mL/min) is inaccurate because the question specifies the rate in hours, not minutes. Choice D (80 mL/min) is incorrect as it provides the rate in minutes rather than hours, which is the required unit for this scenario.
During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?
- A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
- B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
- C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
- D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.
The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?
- A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
- B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
- C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
- D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.
When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?
- A. It is less painful for the client.
- B. Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
- C. It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
- D. It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the examiner.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.
What classification of drug is Diltiazem?
- A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
- B. NSAID
- C. ACE Inhibitor
- D. Beta-Blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
Nokea