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Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Ensure that personnel are utilized in their designated roles'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Accountability'. Accountability in personnel management ensures that individuals are utilized in their designated roles, such as ensuring that soldiers are utilized in their Military Occupational Specialty (MOS). This category focuses on ensuring that personnel are assigned and performing their duties as required. The other choices, personal/professional development, individual training, and military appearance/physical condition, do not directly relate to the specific task of ensuring individuals are utilized in their designated roles.
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Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
- A. Army Nurse Corps officer
- B. First Sergeant
- C. E6, E7, or E8
- D. E3, E4, or E5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.
Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
- A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
- B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
- C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
- D. Discard the first flow of the urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When collecting a mid-stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis, it is important to collect an adequate amount of urine for accurate testing. A volume of 30 to 60 ml is usually recommended for optimal results, so collecting only 5 to 10 ml would not provide enough urine for testing purposes. It is essential to follow proper collection techniques to ensure accurate and reliable test results.
A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
- A. Constipation
- B. Dizziness
- C. Headache
- D. B, C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.
What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?
- A. High-fiber
- B. Low-residue
- C. Low-fat
- D. High-protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
- A. Crying
- B. Self-mutilation
- C. Immobile posturing
- D. Repetitive activities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.