Local anesthetics block the conduction of pain impulses to the spinal cord. Their duration of action:
- A. is always longer than general anesthesia.
- B. is determined by the rate of diffusion and absorption at the site of administration.
- C. is usually short (10 minutes).
- D. varies, depending on the client's weight.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diffusion and absorption depend on the chemical properties of the anesthetic and other factors such as local pH and blood flow. Duration might or might not be longer than general anesthesia. Duration can be short if the type of local anesthetic is a short-acting agent. Client weight is not a factor.
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When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
- A. 1+ edema
- B. 2+ edema
- C. 3+ edema
- D. 4+ edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.
The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?
- A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
- B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
- C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
- D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.
When caring for pediatric clients, the nurse should pay special attention to the psychosocial development stages credited to whom?
- A. Robert Peck
- B. Erik Erikson
- C. Sigmund Freud
- D. Jean Piaget
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erik Erikson is credited with the psychosocial development theory and eight stages. The nurse should consider these stages when caring for pediatric clients to evaluate their development. Jean Piaget is known for cognitive development, Sigmund Freud for psychosexual development, and Robert Peck for aging theory. Therefore, the correct answer is Erik Erikson.
While assisting with data collection, the client informs the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?
- A. Pyrosis
- B. Anorexia
- C. Eructation
- D. Dysphagia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dysphagia.' Dysphagia is the term used to indicate difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the throat or esophagus. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, not difficulty swallowing. Eructation is the medical term for belching, not difficulty swallowing. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the reflux of gastric acid, not difficulty swallowing.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.'
- B. Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse.'
- C. The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5-12 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you.'
- D. We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The guidelines for a fertility workup are to refer after the couple has not conceived after one year of unprotected intercourse. So, Choice 1 is technically correct, but it doesn't consider the immediate need for the couple to have some counseling. Choice 4 is the best answer because it gives the couple guidance now and the referral at the appropriate time. If the woman is over the age of 35, an earlier referral, at six to nine months of unprotected intercourse, is appropriate. It is true that the average time it takes a 25-year-old woman to conceive is 5.3 months, but that does not address the concern the client is expressing. Choice 4 is still the most caring and correct answer. Couples conceive within the first month of unprotected intercourse 20% of the time.
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