Nokea
Mechanism of labor in left occipito-posterior position:
- A. Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation
- B. Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation
- C. Flexion, descent, external rotation
- D. Descent, engagement, extension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation. In left occipito-posterior position, the fetus descends into the pelvis, engages in the maternal pelvis, undergoes flexion to fit through the birth canal, and internally rotates to align with the pelvis for delivery.
Choice B (Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in occipito-posterior positions. Choice C (Flexion, descent, external rotation) is incorrect because external rotation is not part of the mechanism in this position. Choice D (Descent, engagement, extension) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in this position.
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Which one of the following clinical features indicates neonatal intracranial injury?
- A. An oedematous swelling on the newborn’s scalp that resolves in 48 hours
- B. Notable bleeding between the epicranial aponeurosis & the periosteum
- C. Evidence of excessive molding or abnormal stretching of the fetal head
- D. Peripheral cyanosis as noted by the midwife on the neonate’s peripheries
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for choice C:
1. Excessive molding or abnormal stretching of the fetal head can indicate neonatal intracranial injury due to the trauma during birth.
2. This feature suggests possible compression or trauma to the baby's head during delivery.
3. It may lead to intracranial hemorrhage or other injuries, requiring close monitoring and medical intervention.
Summary of other choices:
A. An oedematous swelling resolving in 48 hours is likely a normal finding (cephalohematoma) and not specific to intracranial injury.
B. Notable bleeding between the epicranial aponeurosis & periosteum may indicate cephalohematoma or caput succedaneum, not necessarily intracranial injury.
D. Peripheral cyanosis is related to oxygenation and circulation, not specific to intracranial injury.
Which of the following is an indication for forceps delivery?
- A. Cephalopelvic disproportion
- B. Occipito posterior position
- C. Breech presentation
- D. Placenta abruption
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Occipito posterior position. Forceps delivery may be indicated in this situation to help rotate the baby's head and facilitate delivery. Occipito posterior position can lead to prolonged labor and fetal distress, making forceps delivery necessary for a safe delivery.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cephalopelvic disproportion is not an indication for forceps delivery as it refers to mismatch between the size of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis.
C: Breech presentation typically requires a different approach such as cesarean section rather than forceps delivery.
D: Placenta abruption, a medical emergency, would not be managed with forceps delivery but rather require immediate intervention to prevent harm to both the mother and baby.
Aims of exchange transfusion procedure includes:
- A. Cure of haemolysis and restoration of hemoglobin level
- B. Cure of hypoxia and removal of all toxic materials
- C. Stabilization of baby’s immune system and liver functions
- D. Control of haemolysis and restoration of hemoglobin level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the main aims of an exchange transfusion procedure are to control haemolysis (process of breaking down red blood cells) and restore hemoglobin levels. This procedure involves removing the baby's blood and replacing it with donor blood to prevent complications from severe jaundice or other conditions. Choice A is incorrect because exchange transfusion does not necessarily cure haemolysis, but it helps control it. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure focuses on managing specific issues rather than removing all toxic materials. Choice C is incorrect because it does not directly address the primary goals of an exchange transfusion.
The complication that is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum is
- A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
- B. Sheehan’s syndrome
- C. Maurice encephalitis
- D. Antepartum bleeding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wernicke's encephalopathy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological complication due to thiamine deficiency, which can occur in severe cases of vomiting, leading to impaired brain function. Sheehan's syndrome is a complication of postpartum pituitary necrosis. Maurice encephalitis is a fictional term not related to this context. Antepartum bleeding is not a typical complication of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, the correct answer is A due to the potential neurological impact of severe vomiting on thiamine levels.
Bruised and oedematous appearance of the uterus, associated with placenta abruption, is collectively referred to as
- A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
- B. Uterine prolapse
- C. Couvelaire uterus
- D. Asherman’s syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Couvelaire uterus. This condition is characterized by a bruised and edematous appearance of the uterus due to severe placental abruption. The rationale is that a Couvelaire uterus specifically refers to this presentation, while the other choices do not.
A: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency.
B: Uterine prolapse is the descent or herniation of the uterus into or beyond the vagina.
D: Asherman's syndrome involves intrauterine adhesions leading to menstrual irregularities.