Varneys Midwifery Test Bank

Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Related

Review Varneys Midwifery Test Bank related questions and content

Melanie is a 31-year-old patient who is being evaluated following a routine urinalysis that revealed microscopic hematuria. She was between menses and has no other identifiable explanation for hematuria. She has no significant medical history and otherwise is without complaint. The AGACNP knows that workup for Melanie should include

  • A. A urology consultation
  • B. CT urogram
  • C. Upper urinary imaging
  • D. Cystoscopy
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Upper urinary imaging is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie based on the presentation of microscopic hematuria with no other identifiable explanation. Upper urinary imaging, such as an ultrasound or CT scan, can help evaluate the upper urinary tract, including the kidneys and ureters, to investigate potential causes of hematuria. This step is commonly recommended before proceeding to invasive procedures like cystoscopy or consultation with a urologist. It allows for a non-invasive assessment of the upper urinary system to identify any potential abnormalities that may be causing the hematuria in the patient.

You may also like to solve these questions

How does a water birth benefit labor?

  • A. Reduces labor pain
  • B. Lowers risk of tearing
  • C. Enhances relaxation
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Water birth can reduce pain, lower tearing risks, and improve relaxation during labor.

Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of

  • A. Morning sickness
  • B. Multiple gestation
  • C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
  • D. Hypertensive disorders
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Persistent nausea and vomiting is a hallmark of hyperemesis gravidarum.

On postoperative day 7 following hepatic transplant, the patient evidences signs and symptoms of acute rejection, confirmed by histologic examination. The AGACNP knows that first-line treatment of acute rejection consists of

  • A. Cyclosporine
  • B. Azathioprine
  • C. Methylprednisolone
  • D. Sirolimus
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The first-line treatment for acute rejection following hepatic transplant is high-dose corticosteroids, such as methylprednisolone. This is because corticosteroids have potent anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects that can help suppress the immune response causing rejection. Cyclosporine, azathioprine, and sirolimus are also commonly used immunosuppressive medications in transplant patients, but in this case of acute rejection, the immediate treatment of choice is methylprednisolone.

Acute inflammatory mastitis can be prevented postnatally by encouraging breastfeeding mothers to

  • A. Use prophylactic antibiotics
  • B. Use bras of the right size
  • C. Wash the breasts thoroughly before breastfeeding
  • D. Empty the breast completely after breastfeeding
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Emptying the breast completely when breastfeeding prevents mastitis by ensuring proper drainage of milk.

Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes

  • A. Proper cleansing and covering of the laceration, along with antibiotic therapy
  • B. Local anesthesia, cleansing, and wound exploration for foreign bodies
  • C. Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair
  • D. Cleansing, covering, antibiotic therapy, and tetanus prophylaxis
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient presents with a jagged laceration on his forearm that is still open and requires sutures. The appropriate management for this patient involves local anesthesia to reduce pain, thorough cleansing of the wound to prevent infection, and wound exploration to assess for any foreign bodies that may be present. Suturing the wound is necessary to promote proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Antibiotic therapy may be indicated if signs of infection are present, but it is not mentioned in the scenario as a primary management step. Tetanus prophylaxis should also be considered given the mechanism of injury involving a dirty object.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.