Nokea
MgSO4 is ordered IV following the established protocol for a client with severe PIH. The anticipated effects of this therapy are anticonvulsant and:
- A. Vasoconstrictive
- B. Vasodilative
- C. Hypertensive
- D. Antiemetic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. However, we would not want to increase the vasoconstriction that is already present. This would make the symptoms more severe. An anticonvulsant effect and vasodilation are the desired outcomes when administering this drug. An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH; however, hypertensive drugs would increase the blood pressure even more. An anticonvulsant effect is the goal of drug therapy for PIH. MgSO4 is not classified as an antiemetic. Antiemetics are not indicated for PIH treatment.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is teaching a client with a history of type 2 diabetes about foot care. The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Inspect feet daily
- B. Soak feet in hot water
- C. Wear tight shoes
- D. Cut toenails with scissors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Daily foot inspection helps detect early signs of injury or infection in type 2 diabetes, preventing complications like ulcers.
The nurse teaches a male client ways to reduce the risks associated with furosemide therapy. Which of the following indicates that he understands this teaching?
- A. I'll be sure to rise slowly and sit for a few minutes after lying down.'
- B. I'll be sure to walk at least 2-3 blocks every day.'
- C. I'll be sure to restrict my fluid intake to four or five glasses a day.'
- D. I'll be sure not to take any more aspirin while I am on this drug.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rising slowly prevents postural hypotension, a common side effect of furosemide that increases fall risk. The other options are not specific to furosemide therapy risks.
A client is being evaluated for carpal tunnel syndrome. The nurse is observed tapping over the median nerve in the wrist and asking the client if there is pain or tingling. Which assessment is the nurse performing?
- A. Phalen's maneuver
- B. Tinel's sign
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Brudzinski's sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tinel’s sign involves tapping the median nerve to elicit pain/tingling in carpal tunnel syndrome. Phalen’s maneuver (A) involves wrist flexion, Kernig’s (C) and Brudzinski’s (D) are for meningitis.
A client admitted with a diagnosis of possible myocardial infarction is admitted to the unit from the emergency room. The nurse's first action when admitting the client will be to:
- A. Obtain vital signs
- B. Connect the client to the cardiac monitor
- C. Ask the client if he is still having chest pain
- D. Complete the history profile
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining vital signs is important after connecting the client to the monitor because vital signs should be stable before the client is discharged from the emergency room. All are important, but the first priority is to monitor the client's rhythm. If the client is in severe pain, pain medication should be given after connecting him to the monitor and obtaining vital signs. Completion of the history profile is the least important of the nursing actions.
The nurse is caring for an obstetrical client in early labor. After the rupture of membranes, the nurse should give priority to:
- A. Applying an internal monitor
- B. Assessing fetal heart tones
- C. Assisting with epidural anesthesia
- D. Inserting a Foley catheter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After rupture of membranes, assessing fetal heart tones is critical to detect distress, such as cord prolapse. Monitoring, anesthesia, and catheterization are secondary priorities.