Nokea
Mr. Dela Isla said he cannot comprehend what the nurse was saying. He suffers from:
- A. Insomnia
- B. Agnosia
- C. Aphraxia
- D. Aphasia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aphasia. Mr. Dela Isla's inability to comprehend what the nurse was saying indicates a language impairment, which is characteristic of aphasia. Aphasia is a condition that affects a person's ability to understand or produce language due to damage to the brain's language centers. Insomnia (A) is a sleep disorder, Agnosia (B) is a perception disorder, and Apraxia (C) is a motor planning disorder, none of which align with Mr. Dela Isla's symptoms.
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The physician prescribes didanosone (ddl [Videx]), 200mg PO every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine ,AZT [Retrovir]). Which condition in the client’s history warrants cautious of this drug?
- A. Peripheral neuropathy
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Asthma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral neuropathy. Didanosine (ddl) can cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, which can exacerbate existing neuropathy. The client's history of peripheral neuropathy warrants caution with this drug to prevent further nerve damage.
Incorrect choices:
B: Hypertension - Didanosine is not contraindicated in hypertension.
C: Diabetes mellitus - While monitoring blood sugar levels is important, didanosine does not directly affect diabetes.
D: Asthma - Didanosine does not have a significant impact on asthma.
In summary, the client's pre-existing peripheral neuropathy makes it important to exercise caution with didanosine to avoid worsening this condition.
A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
- A. Fluoxymesterone (Halotestin)
- B. Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex])
- C. Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
- D. Megestrol (Megace)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex]). Fluorouracil is commonly used in chemotherapy for liver cancer to inhibit cancer cell growth. It is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis. Fluoxymesterone (A) is an androgen used in hormone replacement therapy, not in liver cancer treatment. Tamoxifen (C) is an antiestrogen used in breast cancer treatment, not liver cancer. Megestrol (D) is a progestin used in hormone therapy for breast cancer and endometrial cancer, not liver cancer. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly targets cancer cell growth in liver cancer treatment.
Which of the following responses indicates sympathetic nervous system function?
- A. Tachycardia, dilated pupils
- B. Hypoglycaemia, headache
- C. Increased peristalsis, abdominal cramping
- D. Pupil constriction, bronchoconstriction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tachycardia (increased heart rate) and dilated pupils are classic responses of the sympathetic nervous system activation. Sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response, leading to increased heart rate and dilated pupils to prepare the body for quick action.
Choice B is incorrect because hypoglycemia and headache are not specific to sympathetic nervous system function. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis and abdominal cramping are more indicative of parasympathetic nervous system activity. Choice D is incorrect because pupil constriction and bronchoconstriction are actions of the parasympathetic nervous system, responsible for rest and digest functions.
Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. What is the nurse’s first action?
- A. Force fluids
- B. Increase the flow rate of IV fluids
- C. Continue to monitor the vitals signs
- D. Stop the transfusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the transfusion. This is the first action the nurse should take because the sudden fever could indicate a transfusion reaction. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Continuing to monitor vital signs (choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Forcing fluids (choice A) could worsen the situation if it is a reaction to the transfusion. Increasing the flow rate of IV fluids (choice B) is not indicated as the priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent a potential adverse event.
A patient is hemorrhaging from multiple trauma sites. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Oliguria
- D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. In hypovolemia, the body compensates by increasing heart rate (B: Tachycardia) to maintain perfusion, decreasing urine output (C: Oliguria) to conserve fluid, and increasing respiratory rate (D: Tachypnea) to improve oxygenation. Hypertension is not a typical compensatory response to hypovolemia; instead, blood pressure tends to decrease due to reduced circulating volume. Therefore, hypertension is the symptom that would not be expected in a patient with hypovolemic shock.