Nokea
Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
- A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
- B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
- C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
- D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.
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A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who has had a spinal cord injury. She observes that his last blood pressure was 100/55, and his pulse is 48. These have both trended downwards from the baseline. What should the nurse expect to be the next course of action ordered by the physician?
- A. Assess the patient for decreased level of consciousness
- B. Administer Normal Saline
- C. Insert an NG Tube
- D. Connect and read an EKG
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is entering neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, leading to hypotension and bradycardia. Administering Normal Saline is essential to replace fluid volume, which can help in treating the hypotension and bradycardia symptomatically. This intervention aims to stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status. Assessing for decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) may be important but addressing the hemodynamic instability takes precedence. Inserting an NG Tube (Choice C) and connecting and reading an EKG (Choice D) are not the immediate actions required for the presenting symptoms of hypotension and bradycardia.
Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
- A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
- B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
- C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
- D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
- B. Intense pain in the toe
- C. Yellow-tinged sclera
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In patients with sickle cell disease, severe generalized pain can be associated with vaso-occlusive crises, but yellow-tinged sclera is a common clinical finding related to sickle cell disease. This yellowing of the sclera, known as jaundice, occurs due to the release of bilirubin from damaged or destroyed red blood cells. Severe and persistent diarrhea is not a typical assessment finding in sickle cell disease. Intense pain in the toe may be associated with vaso-occlusive crisis but is not the expected assessment finding in this scenario. Headache is a common symptom in many conditions but is not specifically related to the assessment finding expected in a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with severe generalized pain.
The nurse is collecting data on a child recently diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which question to the mother should elicit data associated with the cause of this disease?
- A. Has your child had any nausea or diarrhea?''
- B. Have you noticed any rashes on your child?''
- C. Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?''
- D. Did your child sustain any injuries to the kidney area?''
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?' Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a known cause of glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the child typically becomes ill with streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract, and then after 1 to 2 weeks, symptoms of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis can develop. This question aims to gather crucial information related to a potential trigger for glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not pertain to a common cause or associated symptom of glomerulonephritis.