Nokea
Mr. Mendres asks Nurse Rose what causes peptic ulcer to develop. Nurse Rose responds that recent research indicates that peptic ulcers are the result of which of the following?
- A. genetic defect in the gastric mucosa
- B. helicobacter pylori infection
- C. high fat diet
- D. work related stress
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium is a major cause of peptic ulcers by weakening the protective mucous layer of the stomach and duodenum. Research has shown a strong association between H. pylori infection and peptic ulcer development. Genetic defects in the gastric mucosa (choice A) are not a proven cause of peptic ulcers. While a high-fat diet (choice C) can exacerbate symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Work-related stress (choice D) may exacerbate symptoms but is not a direct cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, choice B is the most supported and logical answer based on current research findings.
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A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
- A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
- B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
- C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
- D. Human papilloma virus infection at age 32
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale:
1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer.
2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer.
3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.
Which of the ff. descriptions by the nurse would best explain glaucoma to a patient?
- A. “There is an increase in the amount of vitreous humor.”
- B. “There is an increase in the intraocular pressure.”
- C. “There is a decrease in the amount of aqueous humor.”
- D. “There is a decrease in the intraocular pressure.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure." Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve due to increased pressure within the eye. High intraocular pressure is a key factor in the development of glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect because glaucoma is not associated with an increase in vitreous humor. Choice C is incorrect as glaucoma is not related to a decrease in aqueous humor. Choice D is incorrect because glaucoma is characterized by an increase, not a decrease, in intraocular pressure. Therefore, the most accurate description to explain glaucoma to a patient is the one that mentions the increase in intraocular pressure.
The first thing to do for a nurse when an accident occurs is to find out if patient is conscious so that she could:
- A. Reassure the patient
- B. Call relatives
- C. Bring patient immediately to the hospital
- D. Call a doctor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassure the patient. The first priority in any accident scenario is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. By checking if the patient is conscious, the nurse can assess their immediate condition and provide reassurance to alleviate any distress or anxiety. This step establishes communication and trust, allowing for further assessment and appropriate actions to be taken. Calling relatives (B) may be important but not the immediate first step. Bringing the patient immediately to the hospital (C) is premature without assessing the patient first. Calling a doctor (D) can be done after assessing the patient's condition.
Which vein should be used first when initiating IV therapy?
- A. Jugular
- B. Basilic
- C. Brachiocephalic
- D. Axillary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.
A male client is prescribed medications that depress thrombocytes. The nurse should monitor for which of the ff signs and symptoms in the client?
- A. Sore throat and swollen glands
- B. Pernicious anemia with weakness
- C. Bleeding gums and dark tarry tools
- D. Thickening of blood and bruising
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools. Thrombocytes are platelets responsible for blood clotting. Medications that depress thrombocytes can lead to decreased clotting ability, resulting in bleeding tendencies. Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools are common signs of bleeding due to decreased platelet function.
A: Sore throat and swollen glands are more indicative of a possible infection or inflammation, not related to thrombocyte depression.
B: Pernicious anemia with weakness is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, not directly related to thrombocyte depression.
D: Thickening of blood and bruising are not typical signs of decreased platelet function, but rather may be indicative of other conditions like clotting disorders.