Nokea
Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
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Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.
Which of the following conditions may cause an increased respiratory rate?
- A. Stooped posture
- B. Narcotic analgesics
- C. Injury to the brain stem
- D. Anemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anemia can lead to an increased respiratory rate. In anemia, there are decreased levels of hemoglobin in red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. To compensate for the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, the body increases the respiratory rate to bring in more oxygen.
Stooped posture (Choice A) is not directly related to an increased respiratory rate. Narcotic analgesics (Choice B) are more likely to cause a decreased respiratory rate due to their central nervous system depressant effects. Injury to the brain stem (Choice C) can affect respiratory function but may not necessarily lead to an increased respiratory rate.
The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?
- A. Irregular breathing patterns
- B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
- C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
- D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.
A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?
- A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
- B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
- C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
- D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.
A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall
luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This
client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough
diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause
both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can
lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of
consciousness, or death.