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Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?
- A. constant, throbbing headaches
- B. clonus in the lower extremities
- C. Numbness of the face
- D. pain in the scapular region
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.
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A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
- A. Muscle rigidity and spasms
- B. Hiccups
- C. Extrapyramidal reactions
- D. Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario.
C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions.
D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.
Why is heart biopsy performed throughout a clients lifetime after heart transplantation?
- A. To detect rejection
- B. To check the heart functionality
- C. To check rate of the heartbeat
- D. To check for heart tumor CARING FOR CLIENTS WITH HYPERTENSION
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To detect rejection. After heart transplantation, heart biopsy is performed to monitor for rejection, a common complication. Tissue samples are examined for signs of rejection, such as inflammation. This is crucial for timely intervention to prevent rejection-related complications.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: Heart functionality is typically assessed through imaging tests like echocardiograms, not biopsy.
C: Heart rate monitoring can be done through non-invasive methods like electrocardiograms, not biopsy.
D: Checking for heart tumors is not a primary purpose of heart biopsy post-transplantation.
A nurse is directed to administer a hypotonic intravenous solution. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
- A. O.45% sodium chloride
- B. 5% dextrose in water
- C. O.90% sodium chloride
- D. 5% dextrose in normal saline solution
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.90% sodium chloride. When administering a hypotonic solution like 0.45% sodium chloride or 5% dextrose in water, water moves into the cells causing them to swell. This can exacerbate symptoms of hypovolemia such as low blood pressure and decreased perfusion. However, 0.90% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution and will not further exacerbate hypovolemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are hypotonic solutions that can worsen hypovolemic symptoms by causing cellular swelling.
The client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
- A. Nystagmus
- B. No symptoms, because this is normal
- C. Tachycardia therapeutic level
- D. Slurred speech
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge. This is supported by stable vital signs and nearly healed incision, suggesting physical recovery. Choice A is incorrect as fear of being alone does not necessarily mean the patient can perform dressing changes independently. Choice B is incorrect as resuming medications is not related to the patient's fear of being alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest the surgery was unsuccessful based on the information provided.