Nokea
Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?
- A. constant, throbbing headaches
- B. clonus in the lower extremities
- C. Numbness of the face
- D. pain in the scapular region
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client seeks care for hopeless that has lasted for 1 month. To elicit the most appropriate information about this problem, the nurse should ask which question.
- A. “Do you smoke cigarettes, cigars or pipe?”
- B. “Do you eat a lot of red meat?”
- C. “Have you strained your voice recently?”
- D. “Do you eat spicy foods?”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking if the client has strained their voice recently is the most relevant question to assess the issue of hopelessness. Voice strain can be a symptom of underlying emotional distress or mental health concerns, which could be contributing to the client's feelings of hopelessness. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the client's presenting issue and would not provide valuable information in addressing the problem at hand.
The staff nurse in a regional hospital is aware that a dose of parenteral ampicillin must be administered within how many hours after it has been mixed?
- A. 1 hour
- B. 4 hours
- C. 2 hours
- D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (4 hours) because parenteral ampicillin should be administered within 1 hour of mixing. This is crucial to ensure efficacy and prevent bacterial growth in the solution. Choice A (1 hour) is incorrect because it does not allow enough time for administration after mixing. Choice C (2 hours) is also incorrect as it exceeds the recommended time limit. Choice D (8 hours) is incorrect as it exceeds the safe window for administration post-mixing, increasing the risk of bacterial contamination and reduced effectiveness. Thus, the optimal timeframe for administering parenteral ampicillin after mixing is within 4 hours to maintain its therapeutic benefits.
Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?
- A. Assessment data about the client should be collected continuously.
- B. Assess your client after receiving the nursing report and again before giving a report to the next shift of nurses.
- C. Assess your client at least hourly if the client’s vital signs are unstable, and every two hours if the vital signs are stable.
- D. Assessment data should be collected prior to the physician rounding on the unit.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous assessment allows for timely identification of changes in the client's condition. This is crucial for providing appropriate and timely interventions. Assessing the client only at specific times (choices B and C) may lead to missing important changes. Choice D is incorrect because assessments should not be limited to physician rounds; they should be ongoing to ensure comprehensive care.
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
- A. Yearly after age 40
- B. After the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter
- C. After the first menstrual period and annually thereafter
- D. Every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection.
2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer.
3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child.
C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40.
D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.
The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Trousseau’s sign
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypokalamia
- D. Respiratory changes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.