Nokea
Mrs. Zeno asks the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
- A. A genetic defect in the production of acetylcholine
- B. A reduced amount of neurotransmitter acetylcholine
- C. A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites
- D. An inhibition of the enzyme Ache leaving the end plates folded.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites. This is because in diseases like myasthenia gravis, there is an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to decreased functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a genetic defect in acetylcholine production, which is not typically the cause of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a reduced amount of acetylcholine, which is not the primary issue in myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions inhibition of the enzyme Ache, which is not the main mechanism in this disease.
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The nurse administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7am. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be at most risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
- A. 10:00 AM
- B. 4:00 PM
- C. Noon
- D. 10:00 PM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
1. NPH insulin peaks in 4-12 hours, making 4:00 PM the highest risk time.
2. 10:00 AM is too soon for peak effect.
3. Noon is too early for peak effect.
4. 10:00 PM is too late for peak effect.
In summary, B is correct as it aligns with NPH insulin peak time, while other options are too early or too late.
Of the following information collected during a nursing assessment, which are subjective data?
- A. vomiting, pulse 96
- B. respirations 22, blood pressure 130/80
- C. nausea, abdominal pain
- D. pale skin, thick toenails
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data are information reported by the patient that cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, nausea and abdominal pain are symptoms that can only be described by the patient, making them subjective data. Vomiting, pulse rate, respirations, blood pressure, pale skin, and thick toenails are all objective data, as they can be measured or observed directly by the healthcare provider. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents subjective data.
A client with suspected lymphoma is scheduled for lymphangiography. The nurse should inform the client that this procedure may cause which harmless, temporary change?
- A. Purplish stools
- B. Redness of the upper part of the feet
- C. Bluish urine
- D. Coldness of the soles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Redness of the upper part of the feet. During lymphangiography, a contrast dye is injected into the lymphatic vessels. This may cause temporary redness in the upper part of the feet due to the dye spreading throughout the lymphatic system. Purplish stools (A), bluish urine (C), and coldness of the soles (D) are not expected side effects of lymphangiography and do not have a direct correlation with the procedure.
A nurse has been caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What should the nurse focus on during the evaluation phase?
- A. Documenting all interventions performed
- B. Reviewing the client’s progress toward meeting goals
- C. Delegating further care to another healthcare professional
- D. Ensuring compliance with all physician orders
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because during the evaluation phase of nursing care for a client with COPD, the nurse should review the client's progress toward meeting the goals set during the planning phase. This involves assessing whether the interventions implemented are effective in improving the client's condition and if the goals are being achieved. This step is crucial in determining the overall effectiveness of the care provided and making any necessary adjustments to the plan.
A: Documenting interventions is important but not the primary focus during the evaluation phase.
C: Delegating further care is not typically done during the evaluation phase as it is more about assessing the current care plan.
D: Ensuring compliance with physician orders is important but does not encompass the holistic evaluation of the client's progress towards goals.
Which of the following measures will not help correct the patient’s condition
- A. Offer large amount of oral fluid intake to replace fluid lost
- B. Give enteral or parenteral fluid
- C. Frequent oral care
- D. Give small volumes of fluid at frequent interval
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Providing oral care does not directly address fluid balance or hydration status.
2. Oral care focuses on maintaining oral hygiene and preventing infections.
3. Choices A, B, and D all involve fluid intake to address dehydration.
4. Offering large amounts of fluid, enteral or parenteral fluids, and small volumes at frequent intervals all aim to correct the patient's condition by replenishing lost fluids.
Summary:
Choice C is incorrect because oral care does not directly address the patient's dehydration. Choices A, B, and D are better options as they focus on fluid replacement to correct the patient's condition.