Nokea
Which of the following is an abnormal finding upon
- A. To monitor hydration status physical examination of an infant?
- B. To reduce the risk of bladder injury
- C. Anterior fontanel that has a diamond-shaped open
- D. To prevent the patient from urinating during space surgery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The abnormal finding listed in option D, "To prevent the patient from urinating during space surgery," stands out from the rest of the options provided. This is because during space surgery, it is not necessary or appropriate to prevent the patient from urinating; rather, it is essential to focus on the surgical procedure and the patient's safety in a space environment. The other options focus on normal or abnormal physical examination findings in infants, such as the hydration status, fontanel appearance, suture line spacing, ear positioning, and uterus displacement.
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A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Restrict protein intake to less than 40 g/day.
- B. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
- C. Initiate an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 150 mL/hr.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate twice per day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia with severe features at 33 weeks of gestation, initiating seizure precautions is a priority nursing action. Preeclampsia with severe features places the client at an increased risk for seizures. Therefore, the nurse should ensure that seizure precautions are in place, such as maintaining a safe environment, pad the side rails of the bed, and have emergency medications and equipment readily available. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of worsening preeclampsia and impending seizures is crucial for the client's safety and well-being.
The nurse is monitoring a client with premature rupture of membranes at 37 weeks. Which prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
- B. Monitor maternal vital signs frequently.
- C. Perform a vaginal examination every shift.
- D. Administer an antibiotic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaginal exams are minimized to reduce the risk of infection in clients with premature rupture of membranes.
The nurse is assessing a pregnant client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Monitor for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
- B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
- C. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- D. Assess for fetal growth restriction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is critical due to the risk of complications from persistent vomiting.
A nurse in a woman's health clinic is obtaining a health history from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Recurrent Cystitis
- B. Frequent Alcohol Use
- C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
- D. Chlamydia Infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is commonly caused by untreated or inadequately treated sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea. When these infections ascend through the reproductive organs, they can lead to inflammation, scarring, and damage to the reproductive structures, resulting in PID. It is crucial for healthcare providers to identify and treat chlamydia infections promptly to prevent complications like PID. Recurrent cystitis (choice A), frequent alcohol use (choice B), and use of oral contraceptives (choice C) do not directly increase the risk for PID as compared to a sexually transmitted infection like chlamydia.
Platypelloid pelvis
- A. Places the client as risk for dystocia
- B. Has an increased probability of cesarean section
- C. Has a flat shape that may impede fetal descent
- D. A Gynecoid pelvis is roomy and ideal for vaginal birth. An Anthropoid pelvis has an oval shape, and an android pelvis is heart shape.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A platypelloid pelvis is characterized by a flat shape with a shortened anteroposterior diameter, which can impede fetal descent during labor. This pelvic type is associated with an increased risk of dystocia, which is difficulty in childbirth due to inadequate progress of labor. The flat shape of the pelvis may lead to improper positioning of the baby, making it challenging for the fetus to navigate through the birth canal. This can result in prolonged labor, increased risk of birth injuries, and potential complications for both the mother and the baby. In some cases, it may necessitate interventions such as labor induction or cesarean delivery to ensure a safe outcome for the mother and the baby.