Nokea
Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following
- A. Erb’s palsy
- B. Klumpke’s palsy
- C. Phrenic injury
- D. Radial palsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klumpke's palsy. Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy, characterized by paralysis of the lower arm and hand muscles. This occurs due to damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus. Erb's palsy (choice A) involves C5 & C6 nerve roots, causing weakness in the shoulder and upper arm. Phrenic injury (choice C) affects the diaphragm, leading to breathing difficulties. Radial palsy (choice D) results from damage to the radial nerve, causing wrist drop and weakness in forearm muscles. Klumpke's palsy specifically matches the description of injury to nerve roots C8 & T1.
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When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
- A. Tympany
- B. Guarding
- C. Rebound tenderness
- D. Somatic pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tympany. Tenderness to percussion is analogous to tympany as both indicate the presence of gas-filled structures. When a patient experiences tenderness to percussion in the abdomen, it suggests that there is gas or air present in the abdomen, leading to a hollow, drum-like sound upon percussion, which is characteristic of tympany. Guarding (B) is the involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles to protect the underlying organs, not related to percussion. Rebound tenderness (C) is the pain experienced when pressure is released during palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) refers to pain originating from the skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion findings.
Causes of puerperal pyrexia are entirely obstetrically related.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth.
Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection).
Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum.
Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related.
Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
- A. CT scan with IV, oral, and rectal contrast
- B. CBC with WBC differential
- C. Colonoscopy
- D. Barium enema
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct diagnostic test for the patient is a barium enema. This test is commonly used to evaluate the colon and rectum for conditions such as colonic obstruction, inflammatory bowel disease, or colorectal cancer. In this case, the patient's presentation of left lower quadrant pain with a history of constipation and variable bowel habits suggests a possible colonic obstruction, which can be visualized through a barium enema. A CT scan with contrast may be helpful in some cases but may not provide as clear a view of the colon as a barium enema. CBC with WBC differential is a general blood test and would not directly aid in diagnosing colonic issues. Colonoscopy, while a valuable tool for evaluating the colon, may not be suitable for this patient initially due to the acute nature of the presentation and the need to first rule out a potential obstruction.
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
- A. Calcium channel antagonists
- B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
- C. Pneumatic dilation
- D. Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients.
Summary for other choices:
B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice.
C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective.
D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.
Diagnosis of occipito-posterior position:
- A. External examination and ultrasound
- B. Physical exam with pelvic exam findings
- C. Regular contractions and maternal discomfort
- D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. External examination can reveal the position of the baby's head.
2. Ultrasound can confirm the baby's position accurately.
3. Physical exam and pelvic exam findings can provide additional information.
4. Combining both methods (A and B) ensures a comprehensive assessment for accurate diagnosis.
Summary:
- Choice A alone may not provide sufficient information.
- Choice B alone may not be as accurate as combined with ultrasound.
- Choice C is not specific to diagnosing occipito-posterior position.
- Choice D is correct as it combines external examination, ultrasound, and physical exam for accurate diagnosis.