Nokea
No drugs cure this condition. Emphasis is put on delaying the onset of severe symptoms. Which of the following does NOT help improve Alzheimer's?
- A. Smoking
- B. Social connections and mental activity
- C. Eat balanced diet
- D. Exercise
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Smoking is a harmful habit that is known to contribute to a variety of health problems, including heart disease, lung disease, and cancer. Smoking does not provide any benefits for Alzheimer's patients and, in fact, can worsen the condition due to its negative impact on overall health. Therefore, smoking does not help improve Alzheimer's and may exacerbate the symptoms and complications associated with the disease.
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Simple hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?
- A. uterus only
- B. uterus and fallopian tubes
- C. uterus and cervix
- D. uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A simple hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus and cervix. It does not involve the removal of the fallopian tubes or ovaries. In some cases, the fallopian tubes may be removed along with the uterus, but this would be specified as a different type of hysterectomy (such as a total hysterectomy or a radical hysterectomy). The removal of the ovaries, if necessary, would be indicated as an oophorectomy.
The nurse knows that a dog bite has a shorter incubation for rabies if located in the
- A. Leg
- B. abdomen
- C. hand
- D. face
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabies has a shorter incubation period if the bite is located on the hand. This is because bites on the hand are more likely to have direct access to nerve pathways, which can lead to a faster spread of the rabies virus to the central nervous system. In general, bites on parts of the body closer to the brain and spinal cord, such as the hand and face, can result in a quicker onset of rabies symptoms compared to bites on farther extremities like the leg or abdomen.
A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Open-angle glaucoma
- B. Closed-angle glaucoma
- C. Age-related macular degeneration
- D. Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.
A nurse is preparing to assist with a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) procedure for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient safety during TEE?
- A. Placing the patient in a supine position with arms at their sides
- B. Administering intravenous sedation to the patient before the procedure
- C. Instructing the patient to refrain from eating or drinking for six hours before the procedure
- D. Ensuring the availability of emergency equipment and resuscitation medications
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring the availability of emergency equipment and resuscitation medications is crucial to prioritize patient safety during a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) procedure. TEE involves inserting a specialized probe (transducer) into the esophagus to obtain detailed images of the heart. While complications during TEE are rare, they can include adverse reactions to sedation, esophageal injury, arrhythmias, or other cardiac events. By having emergency equipment and resuscitation medications readily available, the healthcare team can respond promptly to any unforeseen complications or emergencies that may arise during the procedure, ensuring optimal patient safety. Placing the patient in a supine position, providing sedation, and advising the patient to fast before the procedure are important aspects of the TEE process; however, ensuring emergency preparedness takes precedence in prioritizing patient safety during the procedure.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of pregnancy test?
- A. It allows for counseling on nutrition.
- B. It may help in a decision to stop working at home.
- C. It enables the husband to follow the desires of the wife.
- D. It allows for early initiation of care.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of a pregnancy test is to confirm whether a woman is pregnant or not. Once pregnancy is confirmed, it is crucial for the individual to begin prenatal care as early as possible to ensure a healthy pregnancy and delivery. Early initiation of care can help monitor the health of both the mother and the developing fetus, detect any potential issues or complications early on, and provide necessary interventions or treatments. Therefore, the main objective of a pregnancy test is to enable early initiation of care for the pregnant individual.