Nokea
Non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis can be caused by
- A. Mycoplasma hominis
- B. Mycoplasma genitalium
- C. Ureaplasma urealyticum
- D. all of them
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycoplasma hominis, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are all known to cause non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis. These organisms can infect the urogenital tract and lead to inflammation and symptoms in both males and females. Each of these bacteria has been identified as a common cause of these conditions through research and clinical studies. Therefore, since all three organisms are capable of causing non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis, the correct answer is D. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of them alone can cause these conditions, making option D the most comprehensive and accurate choice.
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Bacterioscopic examination of chancre material revealed some mobile, long, convoluted microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. These features are typical for:
- A. Treponema
- B. Borrellia
- C. Leptospira
- D. Vibrios
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that appears as long, thin, and spiral-shaped microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils under the microscope. This characteristic morphology is specific to Treponema species, making it the correct choice. Borrelia, Leptospira, and Vibrios have different shapes and arrangements under the microscope, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Which one is NOT included in the etiology of osteomyelitis
- A. Haemophilus influenzae
- B. EBV
- C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- D. S. Aureus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: EBV. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacteria, not viruses like Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The main pathogens involved in osteomyelitis are typically Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Haemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. EBV is not a causative agent of osteomyelitis. It is crucial to differentiate between bacterial and viral etiologies in infectious diseases to guide appropriate treatment.
A patient diagnosed with botulism has been prescribed antibotulinic serum for treatment. What immunity will be formed in the given patient?
- A. Antitoxic passive immunity
- B. Infection immunity
- C. Antitoxic active immunity
- D. Antimicrobic active immunity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic passive immunity. Antibotulinic serum contains pre-formed antibodies against the botulinum toxin, providing immediate protection to the patient. This is passive immunity as the patient does not produce their antibodies but receives them externally. Choice B is incorrect as botulism is not an infection, so the patient does not develop infection immunity. Choice C is incorrect because active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to an antigen, which is not the case here. Choice D is incorrect as antimicrobic immunity relates to protection against microbes, not toxins like in botulism.
The main virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is?
- A. The polysaccharide capsule
- B. The beta lactamase
- C. The erythrogenic toxin
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis plays a crucial role in its virulence by preventing phagocytosis, allowing the bacteria to evade the host's immune system. This leads to increased survival and colonization in the host.
Choice B: The beta lactamase is incorrect because it is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics and does not directly contribute to the virulence of Neisseria meningitidis.
Choice C: The erythrogenic toxin is incorrect as this toxin is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Neisseria meningitidis.
Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as the polysaccharide capsule is indeed a key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis.
Which one of the following microbiological diagnostic methods is the most suitable for detection of genitourinary chlamydiosis
- A. cultural diagnostic
- B. ELISA
- C. CFT
- D. PCR
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: PCR. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the most suitable method for detecting genitourinary chlamydiosis due to its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting the genetic material of Chlamydia trachomatis. PCR can detect even low levels of the pathogen, providing accurate results.
A: Cultural diagnostic is not as sensitive as PCR and may take longer to produce results.
B: ELISA detects antibodies, which may not be present in early stages of infection, leading to false-negative results.
C: CFT (Complement Fixation Test) is an older method with lower sensitivity compared to PCR for detecting chlamydiosis.