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Nurse is planning care for a child during admission to the facility. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain a prescription for pain medication.
- B. Collect blood cultures
- C. Transport the child to obtain a CT scan.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Positive Brudzinski's and Kernig's signs indicate meningitis, making seizure precautions the priority to prevent complications.
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The nurse is initiating the client's plan of care. Which of the following Interventions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Provide a low-stimulation environment.
- B. Maintain bed rest.
- C. Give antihypertensive medication.
- D. Administer betamethasone
- E. Monitor intake and output hourly.
- F. Obtain a 24 hr urine specimen.
- G. Perform a vaginal examination every 12 hr.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct answer includes providing a low-stimulation environment (A) for client comfort, maintaining bed rest (B) to promote healing, giving antihypertensive medication (C) for blood pressure management, administering betamethasone (D) for specific medical needs, monitoring intake and output hourly (E) for fluid balance assessment, and obtaining a 24 hr urine specimen (F) for diagnostic purposes. These interventions are essential in addressing the client's physical and physiological needs during care planning. Performing a vaginal examination every 12 hr (G) is not typically indicated and may not be necessary unless specifically ordered for a particular condition.
The nurse should identify that which of the following client findings requires follow-up care?
- A. A client who received a Mantoux test 48hr ago and has an induration
- B. A client who is schedule for a colonoscopy and is taking sodium phosphate
- C. A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8(low INR clotting)
- D. A client who is takin bumetanide and has a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because it indicates insufficient anticoagulation, putting the client at risk for clot formation. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range (usually 2-3 for most indications) for warfarin therapy. This can lead to inadequate prevention of blood clots, increasing the risk of thromboembolic events. Follow-up care may involve adjusting the warfarin dosage to achieve the target INR range.
Choice A is incorrect because an induration after a Mantoux test is an expected finding and does not necessarily require follow-up care. Choice B is incorrect as taking sodium phosphate before a colonoscopy is a standard preparation and does not indicate a need for immediate follow-up care. Choice D is incorrect as a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the oxygen tank away from curtains or drapes.
- B. Store extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet.
- C. Lay the oxygen tank on its side when not in use.
- D. Increase the oxygen flow rate if the client reports shortness of breath.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing the oxygen tank away from curtains or drapes reduces the risk of fire hazards since oxygen supports combustion. This action ensures a safe environment for the client.
Summary:
B: Storing extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet is a good practice, but not directly related to immediate safety concerns like fire hazards.
C: Laying the oxygen tank on its side when not in use can cause damage to the tank and is not a safe storage method.
D: Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.
The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings. For each assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: Sure, here is the step-by-step rationale for why options C and D (Platelet count) are correct:
1. Blood pressure: In preeclampsia, high blood pressure is a key characteristic. Elevated blood pressure is a common finding in patients with preeclampsia, making option C consistent with preeclampsia.
2. Platelet count: HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count. Therefore, a low platelet count is a hallmark feature of HELLP syndrome, aligning with option D.
Summary:
- Hemoglobin (Option A): Hemoglobin levels are not specific to either preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome. Therefore, this option is not selected.
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (Option B): Elevated ALT levels are more specific to HELLP syndrome due to liver involvement. However, ALT
A nurse is assessing a client who received hydromorphone 4mg IV 15 min ago. The client has a respiratory rate of 10/min. the nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Flumazenil
- C. Activated charcoal
- D. Atropine
- E. Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naloxone. Hydromorphone is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression. The client's low respiratory rate of 10/min indicates potential opioid overdose. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression. Administering naloxone can help restore normal breathing in the client. Flumazenil (B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (C) is used for toxin ingestion, not opioid overdose. Atropine (D) is a medication used for bradycardia, not respiratory depression. Diphenhydramine (E) is an antihistamine and is not indicated in this situation.