Nokea
Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:
- A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
- B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
- C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
- D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.
You may also like to solve these questions
High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by
- A. the kidneys' inability to excrete the drug metabolites.
- B. rapid cell catabolism.
- C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently.
- D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' Chemotherapy leads to the destruction of cells, resulting in increased uric acid levels due to cell breakdown. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is not with the kidneys' ability to excrete the drug metabolites but rather with the cell breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as the question focuses on chemotherapy and its effects, not prophylactic antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as the question pertains to the development of high uric acid levels, not altered blood pH from acidic drugs.
A nurse suspects a patient is developing Bell's Palsy. The nurse wants to test the function of cranial nerve VII. Which of the following would be the most appropriate testing procedures?
- A. Test the taste sensation over the back of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
- B. Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles.
- C. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the back of the tongue.
- D. Test the sensation of the facial muscles and sensation of the front of the tongue.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (VII) is responsible for motor function to the face and sensory function to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Therefore, to appropriately test the function of cranial nerve VII, the most appropriate testing procedures involve assessing the taste sensation over the front of the tongue (sensory) and activation of the facial muscles (motor). Option B, 'Test the taste sensation over the front of the tongue and activation of the facial muscles,' is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve the correct combination of sensory testing over the front of the tongue and motor activation of the facial muscles, which are key functions associated with cranial nerve VII.
Teaching about the importance of avoiding foods high in potassium is most crucial for which client?
- A. a client receiving diuretic therapy
- B. a client with an ileostomy
- C. a client with metabolic alkalosis
- D. a client with renal disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with renal disease are prone to hyperkalemia due to impaired kidney function, making it crucial for them to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk of hypokalemia. These individuals should actually consume foods high in potassium to replenish the electrolyte lost through diuresis, ileostomy output, or metabolic alkalosis.
A month after receiving a blood transfusion, an immunocompromised client develops fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse should suspect this client has:
- A. no relation to the blood transfusion.
- B. graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
- C. myelosuppression.
- D. an allergic reaction to a recent medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of fever, liver abnormalities, rash, and diarrhea in an immunocompromised client a month after a blood transfusion are indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when white blood cells in donor blood attack the tissues of an immunocompromised recipient. This process can manifest within a month of the transfusion. While choices 1 and 4 are plausible, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the possibility of GVHD in immunocompromised transfusion recipients due to the significant risk. Myelosuppression, choice C, typically presents with decreased blood cell counts and is not consistent with the symptoms described. An allergic reaction to medication, choice D, would present with different manifestations such as itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, which are not described in the scenario.
What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?
- A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
- B. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
- C. Obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
- D. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.