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Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypoxemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.
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As part of primary cancer prevention program, an oncology nurse answers questions from the public at health fair. When someone asks about the laryngeal cancer, the nurse should explain that:
- A. Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer
- B. Inhaling polluted air isn’t a risk factor for laryngeal cancer
- C. Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women
- D. Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Laryngeal cancer is one of the most preventable types of cancer. This is because the primary risk factors for laryngeal cancer are largely related to lifestyle choices such as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and exposure to certain occupational hazards. By avoiding these risk factors, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing laryngeal cancer.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Inhaling polluted air isn’t a risk factor for laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as exposure to polluted air can contribute to the development of laryngeal cancer.
C: Laryngeal cancer occurs primarily in women - This is incorrect as laryngeal cancer occurs more frequently in men than in women.
D: Adenocarcinoma accounts for most cases of laryngeal cancer - This is incorrect as squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of laryngeal cancer, not adenocarcin
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Acute pain
- C. Sleep apnea
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The rationale is that NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association-International) approves nursing diagnoses that are specific, measurable, and relevant to nursing care. Acute pain fits these criteria as it is a common nursing diagnosis that can be assessed objectively and treated with nursing interventions. The other choices (sore throat, sleep apnea, heart failure) are medical diagnoses that do not fall under the scope of nursing diagnoses approved by NANDA-I. Therefore, acute pain is the most appropriate diagnosis to be documented in a patient's care plan according to NANDA-I guidelines.
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Acute pain
- C. Sleep apnea
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. The NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approved diagnosis must meet specific criteria related to patient assessment data, defining characteristics, and related factors. Acute pain is a well-defined nursing diagnosis with specific defining characteristics and related factors, making it a suitable and approved option for inclusion in a patient's care plan. Sore throat, sleep apnea, and heart failure do not meet the criteria for a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as they lack the specificity and comprehensive assessment data required for a nursing diagnosis.
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
- A. Adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal.
- B. Performing routine monitoring of the client’s condition.
- C. Administering medication as prescribed by the physician.
- D. Completing discharge paperwork for the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals.
Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
The client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium level of 140 mEq/l.
- B. Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- D. Platelet count of 400,000/mm3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver damage, causing an increase in bilirubin levels. Direct bilirubin specifically indicates liver function. A: Sodium level is not related to acetaminophen toxicity. C: Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting, not indicative of acetaminophen toxicity. D: Platelet count is not affected by acetaminophen toxicity.