Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Related

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On a visit to the gynecologist, a client complains of urinary frequency, pelvic discomfort, and weight loss. After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer. The nurse expects to prepare the client for which initial treatment?

  • A. Radiation therapy
  • B. Chemotherapy
  • C. Major surgery
  • D. None
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer is major surgery (Choice C). This is because at this advanced stage, surgery is typically performed to debulk the tumor and remove as much cancerous tissue as possible, followed by chemotherapy to target any remaining cancer cells. Radiation therapy (Choice A) is not typically the initial treatment for ovarian cancer. Chemotherapy (Choice B) is often used in combination with surgery, but surgery is usually the first line of treatment for stage IV disease. Choosing no treatment (Choice D) would be detrimental as the cancer is advanced and requires immediate intervention.

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What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?

  • A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
  • B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
  • C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
  • D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer.

Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.

With pulmonary edema, there is usually an alteration in:

  • A. Afterload
  • B. Preload
  • C. Contractility
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Pulmonary edema causes an increase in pressure in the pulmonary circulation, leading to an alteration in afterload due to increased resistance. It also causes fluid accumulation in the pulmonary vessels, affecting preload. Additionally, the heart may compensate by increasing contractility. Therefore, all of the above choices are altered in pulmonary edema. The incorrect choices are A, B, and C individually as they only represent one aspect of the alterations seen in pulmonary edema, while the correct answer D encompasses all three factors affected in this condition.

Which virus causes genital warts?

  • A. Cytomegalovirus
  • B. Human papillomavirus
  • C. Herpes simplex virus type II
  • D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the virus that causes genital warts. It is transmitted through sexual contact and is the most common sexually transmitted infection. Cytomegalovirus (A) does not cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus type II (C) causes genital herpes, not warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (D) causes AIDS and weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts.

Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?

  • A. A
  • B. AB
  • C. B
  • D. O
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (AB). AB blood type is the rarest because it is a result of inheriting both A and B alleles, making it less common in the population. AB individuals can only receive blood from other AB individuals due to their unique antigens. Blood types A, B, and O are more common in the population, with O being the most common as it is the universal donor. Blood type A and B are more common than AB since they only require one allele for their respective antigens. Thus, the rarity of AB blood type is due to the inheritance of both A and B alleles, making it the least common among the choices provided.

A client with Addison’s disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:

  • A. calcium and phosphorus abnormalities
  • B. sodium and chloride abnormalities
  • C. chloride and magnesium
  • D. sodium and potassium abnormalities abnormalities.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. This leads to sodium and potassium imbalances. Low aldosterone causes sodium loss and potassium retention, resulting in sodium and potassium abnormalities. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not directly relate to Addison's disease. Calcium and phosphorus abnormalities are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Sodium and chloride, and chloride and magnesium imbalances are not primary concerns in Addison's disease. Therefore, staying alert for signs and symptoms of sodium and potassium abnormalities is crucial in managing and monitoring a client with Addison's disease.

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