Nokea
Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Listeria monocytogenes
- C. Salmonella
- D. All are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.
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Dengue virus is member of a family called
- A. Hepadnaviridae
- B. Parvoviridae
- C. Flaviviridae
- D. Picornaviridae
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flaviviridae. Dengue virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family because it is a flavivirus. Flaviviruses are a group of RNA viruses known to cause diseases in humans, such as dengue fever, Zika virus, and yellow fever. This family is characterized by its single-stranded, positive-sense RNA genome and enveloped virion structure. Hepadnaviridae (choice A), Parvoviridae (choice B), and Picornaviridae (choice D) are all different families of viruses that do not include the dengue virus. Hepadnaviridae includes hepatitis B virus, Parvoviridae includes parvoviruses, and Picornaviridae includes enteroviruses like poliovirus.
The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Streptococcus agalactiae
- C. Klebsiella oxytoca
- D. Propionibacterium acnes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.
A 25-year-old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease?
- A. Escherichia coli
- B. Chlamydia trachomatis
- C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease.
Summary:
A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates.
C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is
Francisella tularensis is a:
- A. spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium
- B. non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium
- C. non-spore forming non-capsulated gram-negative bacterium
- D. spore forming non-capsulated gram-negative bacterium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.
The most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance is
- A. Reduced active influx by alteration of transport molecules
- B. Reduced passive influx due to altered cell membrane components
- C. Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell
- D. Direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell. This is the most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance because it involves the bacteria actively pumping out the antibiotic, reducing its intracellular concentration. This prevents tetracycline from effectively targeting bacterial ribosomes. Choice A is incorrect as tetracycline resistance typically involves active efflux rather than reduced influx. Choice B is incorrect because tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not primarily involve altered cell membrane components affecting passive influx. Choice D is also incorrect as tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not typically involve direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.