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Patients exhibiting signs of cyanosis will:
- A. show signs of hyperoxia.
- B. have increased O2 saturation.
- C. have blood levels of CO2 higher than O2 levels.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes resulting from low blood oxygen levels. When a patient exhibits cyanosis, it indicates that their blood is poorly oxygenated, leading to a higher concentration of CO2 compared to oxygen. Options A and B are incorrect as cyanosis is associated with low oxygen levels, not hyperoxia or increased O2 saturation. Therefore, the correct answer is that patients exhibiting cyanosis will have blood levels of CO2 higher than O2 levels.
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When dismissing a 5-year-old boy from the pediatrics unit, what type of seat belt restraint should the child wear as the parents drive the car to the front door of the hospital?
- A. A 5-point restraint in the back seat, facing backward
- B. A booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat
- C. A lap belt in the back seat
- D. A lap and shoulder belt in the front seat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 5-year-old child riding in a car should use a restraint system for safety. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that children under 13 years should not ride in the front seat of a car due to safety concerns. For a 5-year-old child, a booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat is the most appropriate choice. This setup ensures proper protection and restraint for the child's size and age. Choice A is incorrect because a 5-point restraint system facing backward is not suitable for a 5-year-old child in a car. Choice C is incorrect as a lap belt alone does not provide adequate protection for a child of this age. Choice D is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat, especially at this young age.
Which of the following actions is most appropriate for reducing the risk of infection during the post-operative period?
- A. Flush the central line with heparin at least every four hours
- B. Administer narcotic analgesics as needed
- C. Remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory
- D. Order a high-protein diet for the client
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate action to reduce the risk of infection during the post-operative period is to remove the urinary catheter as soon as the client is ambulatory. Urinary catheters can serve as a source of bacteria, increasing the risk of infection in the bladder or urethra. By removing the catheter promptly once the client is mobile, the risk of infection can be minimized. Option A, flushing the central line with heparin, is not directly related to reducing urinary tract infections. Option B, administering narcotic analgesics as needed, is important for pain management but does not directly address infection prevention. Option D, ordering a high-protein diet, may be beneficial for wound healing but does not specifically target infection risk reduction in the post-operative period.
During the general survey, what action is a component of the assessment?
- A. Observing the patient's body stature and nutritional status
- B. Interpreting the subjective information reported by the patient
- C. Measuring the patient's temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure
- D. Observing specific body systems during the physical assessment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the general survey, the nurse assesses the patient's overall appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior, which includes observing body stature and nutritional status. Interpreting subjective information reported by the patient is part of the subjective data collection process and not the general survey. Measuring vital signs like temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure is part of a focused physical examination, not the general survey. Additionally, observing specific body systems while performing a physical assessment is more specific and focused than the general survey.
Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?
- A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
- B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
- C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
- D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.
A client has just started a transfusion of packed red blood cells that a physician ordered. Which of the following signs may indicate a transfusion reaction?
- A. The client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills
- B. The client develops dependent edema in the extremities
- C. The client has a seizure
- D. The client's heart rate drops to 60 bpm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is when the client suddenly complains of back pain and has chills. Signs of a transfusion reaction include back pain, chills, dizziness, increased temperature, and blood in the urine. These signs indicate a possible adverse reaction to the blood transfusion. Dependent edema in the extremities is not typically associated with a transfusion reaction. A seizure is not a common sign of a transfusion reaction unless it is due to severe complications. A decrease in heart rate to 60 bpm is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction, but rather bradycardia may indicate other underlying conditions or medications.