Nokea
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) affects the fallopian tubes resulting in a condition called:
- A. Oophoritis
- B. Endometritis
- C. Salpingectomy
- D. Salpingitis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is known to affect the fallopian tubes, leading to inflammation, which is termed as salpingitis. Choice A, Oophoritis, refers to inflammation of the ovaries, not the fallopian tubes. Choice B, Endometritis, is inflammation of the endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus, not the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Salpingectomy, is a surgical procedure to remove a fallopian tube and is not a condition caused by PID.
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Which one is not a barrier method for birth control?
- A. Diaphragms
- B. Cervical caps
- C. Vaults
- D. Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Intrauterine Devices (IUDs). Barrier methods of birth control physically block sperm from reaching the egg. Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are examples of barrier methods as they create a barrier that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix. In contrast, IUDs work by altering the cervical mucus and uterine lining, making it difficult for sperm to reach the egg, but they do not physically block sperm like barrier methods do.
Which of the following is subsidiary uterine support?
- A. Suspensory ligament
- B. Cardinal ligament
- C. Transcervical ligament
- D. Maklouf ligament
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardinal ligament. The cardinal ligament is a primary uterine support structure that helps to anchor the uterus in place. The suspensory ligament also provides support for the uterus but is not considered a subsidiary uterine support. The transcervical ligament does not exist in anatomical terminology. The Maklouf ligament is a fictitious term and not recognized as a subsidiary uterine support structure.
At what age are women likely to enter menopause?
- A. 35 - 40 years
- B. 40 - 45 years
- C. 45 - 50 years
- D. 25 - 30 years
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Women generally enter menopause between the ages of 45 - 50 years. During this stage, women experience a decline in estrogen production, leading to the cessation of menstrual cycles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not fall within the typical age range for menopause onset. Menopause typically occurs later in life, around the age of 45 to 50 years, although individual variations exist.
Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:
- A. Vulvectomy
- B. Podophyllin application
- C. Laser therapy
- D. Electrocautery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.
Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:
- A. 28 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 35 days
- D. 40 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.