Nokea
Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of
- A. Morning sickness
- B. Multiple gestation
- C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- D. Hypertensive disorders
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, dehydration in pregnancy. It is more severe than typical morning sickness (choice A) and is not specific to multiple gestation (choice B). Hypertensive disorders (choice D) typically present with high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema, not just nausea and vomiting. Hyperemesis gravidarum requires medical intervention due to potential complications from dehydration and malnutrition.
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Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions.
Summary:
B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas.
C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas.
D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.
The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sweat beads
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.
During induction of labor with syntocinon, drops increase is stopped prematurely on
- A. Achieving three moderate contractions
- B. Realizing normal maternal observations
- C. Achieving progressive cervical dilatation
- D. Observing normal fetal-related observations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Progressive cervical dilatation indicates effective labor progress.
2. Stopping the syntocinon drops prematurely allows natural labor progression.
3. Prematurely stopping drops before reaching full dilation may hinder labor.
4. Achieving cervical dilatation is a crucial indicator for successful labor.
Summary:
A: Contractions should be strong, not just moderate.
B: Maternal observations alone do not determine labor progress.
D: Fetal-related observations are important but not the primary indicator for stopping drops.
How can Braxton Hicks contractions be differentiated from true labor?
- A. By timing
- B. By intensity
- C. By duration
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - All of the above. Braxton Hicks contractions can be differentiated from true labor by timing, intensity, and duration. Timing refers to the regularity of contractions, intensity relates to the strength of contractions, and duration indicates how long contractions last. By considering all three factors together, one can determine whether contractions are Braxton Hicks (practice contractions) or true labor contractions. Choices A, B, and C alone provide only partial information, which may lead to misinterpretation. Therefore, choosing all three factors collectively (D) is essential for accurate differentiation.
In the majority of cases, the first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is
- A. Epigastric pain
- B. Change in mental status
- C. Fever
- D. Hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. The first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is often a fever due to the body's response to stress. This is because stress can trigger an inflammatory response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Epigastric pain (choice A) is more commonly associated with peptic ulcers. Change in mental status (choice B) is not a typical early symptom of physiologic stress ulcer. Hemorrhage (choice D) is a severe complication that can occur later in the course of the disease, but it is not typically the first clinical manifestation.