Nokea
Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because
- A. Bleeding results as the segment prepares for true labour
- B. Bleeding results from pathological processes of the placenta
- C. Bleeding always occurs after a gestation of 37 complete weeks
- D. Of the high morbidity and mortality rate to the mother and neonate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor due to the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition poses a high risk of morbidity and mortality to both the mother and the baby.
A: Incorrect. Bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor.
B: Incorrect. While bleeding is due to placental issues, it is specifically due to the placenta's abnormal positioning, not a pathological process.
C: Incorrect. Bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia, and the timing of bleeding is not linked to gestational age.
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When evaluating a patient with acute pancreatitis, which of the following physical or diagnostic findings is an ominous finding that indicates a seriously illpotentially moribund patient?
- A. Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back
- B. Abdominal guarding and rigidity
- C. Grey Turner sign
- D. Obturator sign
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obturator sign. This finding indicates irritation of the peritoneum and is associated with a ruptured appendix, not acute pancreatitis. A: Severe epigastric pain with radiation to the back is a common presentation of acute pancreatitis, but not necessarily indicative of a seriously ill patient. B: Abdominal guarding and rigidity may suggest peritonitis but are not specific to acute pancreatitis. C: Grey Turner sign, bruising of the flanks, is associated with severe pancreatitis but does not necessarily indicate a seriously ill patient.
In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. -
- D. -
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and swelling. This contradicts the statement that the mother has no complaints. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the mother has no complaints. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any relevant information to address the question.
In True cephalopelvic disproportion
- A. Half of the patients will need an operative delivery
- B. The problem may be overcome during labor
- C. Operative delivery is unnecessary
- D. Operative delivery will be needed
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In True cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. This condition often requires operative delivery (C-section) as a vaginal birth is not possible. Choice D is correct because operative delivery is indeed needed to safely deliver the baby. Choice A is incorrect as not all patients with cephalopelvic disproportion will necessarily require operative delivery. Choice B is also incorrect as the issue cannot generally be overcome during labor due to physical constraints. Choice C is incorrect as operative delivery is usually necessary in cases of true cephalopelvic disproportion to prevent complications.
How can healthcare providers support women after stillbirth?
- A. Offer emotional counseling
- B. Explain causes clearly
- C. Support in planning future pregnancies
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: 1. Emotional counseling helps women cope with grief.
2. Explaining causes provides closure and understanding.
3. Supporting future pregnancies ensures better outcomes.
4. All options address different aspects of support needed after stillbirth.
5. Therefore, providing emotional counseling, explaining causes, and supporting future pregnancies collectively offer comprehensive care.
McEwen sign is associated with
- A. Hydrocephalus
- B. Myelomeningocele
- C. Microcephaly
- D. Encephalocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Myelomeningocele. McEwen sign refers to the characteristic scalloping of the frontal bones due to pressure from the expanding brain in individuals with myelomeningocele. This sign is specific to myelomeningocele and is not associated with hydrocephalus (A), microcephaly (C), or encephalocele (D), which have different clinical manifestations and imaging findings. Myelomeningocele is a neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its coverings protrude through an opening in the spine, leading to neurological deficits and associated signs like McEwen sign.