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Plat. Transfusion is not indicated in:
- A. aplastic an.
- B. uraemia with bleeding
- C. DIC
- D. immunogenic thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Plat. transfusion is not indicated in immunogenic thrombocytopenia (ITP) because it is an autoimmune disorder where the body destroys its own platelets. Transfusing platelets won't solve the underlying issue of platelet destruction. In aplastic anemia (A), platelet transfusion can help due to low platelet production. In uremia with bleeding (B) and DIC (C), platelet transfusion is necessary to manage bleeding due to decreased platelet function or consumption.
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Virchow's node receives lymphatics from all except:
- A. testes
- B. stomach
- C. prostate
- D. breast
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Virchow's node, also known as the left supraclavicular node, receives lymphatics primarily from the abdomen. The correct answer is C (prostate) because the prostate does not drain into Virchow's node. The stomach, breast, and testes all have lymphatic connections to Virchow's node. This is due to the anatomical location of these organs and their respective lymphatic drainage pathways. The stomach drains into the celiac lymph nodes, which then connect to Virchow's node. The breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes, which also communicate with Virchow's node. The testes drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes, which eventually lead to Virchow's node. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the unique lymphatic drainage patterns of these organs.
A nurse is administering epoetin intravenously to a client who has renal failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Shake the vial before using.
- B. Administer via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min.
- C. Dilute the drug first with D5W.
- D. Save the used vial for the next dose.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min. This is the correct action because epoetin is typically administered intravenously over a specified time frame to prevent adverse reactions such as rapid changes in blood pressure or heart rate. Shaking the vial before using (option A) is unnecessary and may lead to frothing. Diluting the drug with D5W (option C) is not recommended for administration as an IV bolus. Saving the used vial for the next dose (option D) is incorrect and violates medication safety protocols. Administering via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min ensures safe and effective delivery of the medication.
A 19-year-old freshman in college presents with 'lumps' on the right side of his neck and in the right axilla. He had a fever to 39 °C 1 day in the past week. On physical exam, there are firm anterior cervical and axillary nodes, all greater than 2 cm in diameter. A chest x-ray shows a large mediastinal mass. A biopsy of the axillary node reveals classic Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following symptoms revealed during the history is a B symptom?
- A. Fever to 39 °C
- B. 10% weight loss in past 6 months
- C. Fatigue
- D. Alcohol-induced pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In Hodgkin lymphoma, B symptoms are systemic symptoms associated with poor prognosis. Weight loss of ≥10% in the past 6 months is a B symptom. This indicates a more aggressive disease. Fever (choice A) is a general symptom. Fatigue (choice C) is common but nonspecific. Alcohol-induced pain (choice D) is not a recognized B symptom in Hodgkin lymphoma. Weight loss is a key indicator of disease severity and is classified as a B symptom.
You are consulting on a 10-year-old male with severe persistent neutropenia, a history of recurrent infections, and warts. The rest of the peripheral blood count is normal. His mother also has neutropenia. Bone marrow examination shows a hypercellular marrow and retained myeloid cells with vacuolated cytoplasm. There are no abnormalities in the red cells or platelet precursors. Cytogenetics are 46XY. You start granulocyte colony stimulating factor therapy and the neutrophil count increases. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely to have caused this familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome?
- A. CXCR4
- B. ELANE
- C. GATA 2
- D. Mitochondrial DNA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CXCR4. In this case, the patient presents with severe neutropenia, recurrent infections, and warts, suggestive of WHIM syndrome, where CXCR4 mutations are often involved. CXCR4 plays a crucial role in immune cell trafficking and retention in the bone marrow. The hypercellular marrow and vacuolated myeloid cells are consistent with WHIM syndrome. The absence of abnormalities in red cells or platelet precursors rules out other syndromes. Mutations in ELANE are commonly associated with congenital neutropenia, not familial inherited bone marrow failure syndromes. GATA2 mutations are linked to familial myelodysplastic syndromes, not typically presenting with neutropenia and warts. Mitochondrial DNA mutations are more related to mitochondrial disorders, which usually manifest with multi-system involvement, not specific to bone marrow failure syndromes.
The health care provider tells the nurse that a client is to be started on a platelet inhibitor. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach the client?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
- C. Reteplase (Retavase)
- D. Warfarin (Coumadin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Platelet inhibitors like Clopidogrel work by preventing blood clots by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel is commonly used to reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used to prevent blood clots. Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors in the liver, but it does not directly target platelets like Clopidogrel.