Nokea
Potential adverse effects of Depo-provera include
- A. heavy menstrual bleeding
- B. dysmenorrhea
- C. acne
- D. weight gain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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Interpret the following ABG results (pH: 7.48 - PaCO2: 42 - HCO3:30):
- A. Metabolic acidosis without compensation
- B. Respiratory alkalosis with partial compensation
- C. Respiratory alkalosis with full compensation
- D. Metabolic alkalosis without compensation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A term infant is born with Apgar scores of 5 at minute and 7 at 5 minutes The infant has a heart rate of 7 and demonstrates pallor with hepatosplenomegaly A Coombs test on maternal blood yields positive results The most likely diagnosis is
- A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
- B. Hereditary spherocytosis
- C. Chronic fetal-maternal hemorrhage
- D. ABO incompatibility
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
If the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse recognizes that a patient is most likely to have which type of hypertension?
- A. Primary
- B. Isolated systolic
- C. Secondary
- D. Hypertensive emergency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Isolated systolic hypertension is characterized by elevated systolic blood pressure (SBP) with normal diastolic blood pressure (DBP). In this case, if the systolic BP is elevated and the diastolic BP is normal, the nurse would recognize this pattern as indicative of isolated systolic hypertension. This condition is more common in older adults and is associated with aging and stiffening of the arteries. Patients with isolated systolic hypertension are at an increased risk of cardiovascular events, so it is important to monitor and manage their blood pressure appropriately.
Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?
- A. A low platelet count
- B. Early ambulation
- C. An incision near the diaphragm
- D. Early discharge
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An incision near the diaphragm places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following a splenectomy. The diaphragm is the major muscle involved in the process of breathing, and if there is disruption or irritation near this area, it can lead to respiratory difficulties such as decreased lung expansion and pain on deep breathing. This can increase the risk of complications such as pneumonia, atelectasis, or respiratory distress. Therefore, special care should be taken to monitor and manage respiratory function in patients with incisions near the diaphragm post-splenectomy.
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
- A. Observe him for signs of Brain injury
- B. Check for hemorrhaging from the oral cavity
- C. Elevate the foot of the bed if he develops symptoms of shock
- D. Observe for symptoms of decreased intracranial pressure and temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient is suspected to have a possible skull fracture, the nurse should observe him for signs of brain injury. Signs of brain injury can include changes in level of consciousness, altered pupil size or reaction to light, slurred speech, weakness or numbness in extremities, seizures, severe headache, vomiting, and vision changes. Monitoring for these signs would help in early detection of any worsening condition or complications related to the skull fracture. It is crucial to assess and monitor the patient's neurological status closely to provide timely interventions and prevent further damage.