Pulling is easier than pushing. So pulling a client rather than pushing them has which of the following advantages?
- A. reduces workload
- B. decreases opposition from gravity
- C. maintains stability
- D. prevents muscle strain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When pulling a client, you work with the gravitational force instead of opposing it, which reduces the workload on your muscles. Choosing to pull a client minimizes the effort required compared to pushing. Choice B is incorrect because the force of gravity remains constant regardless of pushing or pulling. Choice C is irrelevant as stability is not directly related to the advantage of pulling over pushing. Choice D is inaccurate because pulling can still strain muscles if not executed correctly, but it generally reduces the overall workload in comparison to pushing.
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When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?
- A. mental confusion
- B. muscular weakness
- C. sensory loss
- D. emotional liability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.
The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:
- A. Good Samaritan laws.
- B. HIPAA.
- C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
- D. OBRA.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.
A nurse provides instructions to a mother about crib safety for her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
- A. ''Wood surfaces on the crib need to be free of splinters and cracks.''
- B. ''I need to keep large toys out of the crib.''
- C. ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.''
- D. ''The drop side needs to be impossible for my infant to release.''
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.'' This statement indicates a need for further instructions as the distance between the slats should be no more than 2⅜ inches to prevent entrapment of the infant's head and body, not 4 inches. Allowing a larger gap can pose a risk of entrapment or injury to the infant. Keeping large toys out of the crib is essential to prevent the infant from using them to climb out, which could result in serious injuries. Ensuring the drop side of the crib is impossible for the infant to release is crucial to prevent falls and injuries. Additionally, maintaining wood surfaces on the crib free of splinters, cracks, and lead-based paint is vital for the infant's safety and well-being.
Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?
- A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
- B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
- C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
- D. a client diagnosed with AIDS
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.
What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?
- A. reduced calories and reduced fat
- B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
- C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
- D. fluid restriction and reduced calories
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.