Nokea
Pulmonary complications are the most common problem in caring for AIDS patients. This is caused:
- A. Kaposi's Sarcoma
- B. Pneumonia Carnii
- C. Filterable Virus
- D. Staphylococcus bacteria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pneumonia Carnii. Pulmonary complications in AIDS patients are commonly caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii (previously known as Pneumocystis carinii) pneumonia. This opportunistic infection targets the lungs of immunocompromised individuals, leading to severe respiratory issues. Kaposi's Sarcoma (A) is a cancer commonly seen in AIDS patients but does not directly cause pulmonary complications. Filterable Virus (C) is a vague term and not a known cause of pulmonary issues in AIDS patients. Staphylococcus bacteria (D) can cause infections in AIDS patients but is less common than Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in causing pulmonary complications.
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A patient was rushed to the ER because of difficulty in urination. He was diagnosed then as a cse of benign prostate hyperthropy (BPH) and was advised by the doctor to undego transurethral resection of prostate (TURP). Based on the urgency of the surgery, the nurse classifies this condition as:
- A. emergency
- B. C.urgent
- C. elective
- D. required
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing difficulty in urination due to benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH), a condition that can lead to serious complications like acute urinary retention. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a surgical procedure that is used to relieve the obstruction caused by BPH. Given the urgency of the situation and the potential for acute complications, the surgery needs to be performed immediately to prevent further harm to the patient's health. Classifying this condition as an emergency ensures prompt intervention and prioritizes the patient's well-being.
Summary:
- B: C.urgent (not correct): While the surgery is time-sensitive, it does not require immediate intervention like in an emergency situation.
- C: elective (not correct): Elective surgeries are planned in advance and are not typically performed in urgent situations like this one.
- D: required (not correct): While the surgery is necessary for the patient's condition
When teaching a client about insulin therapy, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which over-the- counter preparation that can interact with insulin?
- A. Antacids
- B. Vitamins with irons
- C. Acetaminophen preparations
- D. Salicylate preparations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Salicylate preparations. Salicylate can potentiate the effects of insulin, leading to hypoglycemia. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid this over-the-counter preparation when on insulin therapy. Antacids (A), vitamins with iron (B), and acetaminophen preparations (C) do not typically interact with insulin in a significant way.
An African client has been diagnosed with Osteomyelitis. The nurse expects to assess which of the following?
- A. pale, cool, tender skin at site
- B. decreased white blood cell count
- C. positive wound cultures
- D. decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: positive wound cultures. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone that is typically diagnosed through wound cultures. This assessment helps to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate treatment. Choices A and D are not typical findings in osteomyelitis. Choice A describes symptoms of poor circulation which are not specific to osteomyelitis. Choice B, decreased white blood cell count, is typically not seen in the presence of an infection like osteomyelitis.
When can a donor and recipient of blood be considered compatible?
- A. If there is no change in the blood color when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- B. If there are blood clots when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- C. If there is no clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- D. If a blood drop does not sink when dropped in water after both samples are mixed in the laboratory
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because compatibility between blood donor and recipient is determined by the absence of clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed. Clumping indicates an incompatible blood type reaction, leading to potential harm. Blood clots (option B) are not indicative of compatibility but rather a sign of coagulation issues. Blood color change (option A) and blood drop sinking in water (option D) are not reliable indicators of blood compatibility. In summary, option C is correct as it directly assesses for the absence of a harmful reaction, while the other choices do not accurately determine blood compatibility.
Which of the following diets would the nurse include in the plan of care for a person with AIDS?
- A. A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals.
- B. A low-fat, soft diet divided into 8 small meals.
- C. A high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet divided into 4 meals.
- D. A high-fat, high-calorie diet divided into 3 meals.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption.
Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.