"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Cefoperazone
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.
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Red man syndrome has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of which of the following antibiotic?
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Cefoperazone
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with rapid intravenous infusion of vancomycin. This is due to the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. Vancomycin is known to cause this syndrome, while the other antibiotics listed do not have a similar association. Clindamycin is more commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone with liver toxicity, and Piperacillin with hypersensitivity reactions like rash or anaphylaxis. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and clinical evidence, vancomycin is the correct choice for causing red man syndrome.
Which antileprosy drug that both suppresses lepra reaction and reversal * reaction?:
- A. Dapsone
- B. Rifampin
- C. Clofazimine
- D. Minocycline
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Clofazimine is the correct answer because it is known to suppress both lepra reaction and reversal reaction in leprosy treatment.
Step 2: Dapsone is mainly used to treat leprosy but does not specifically target lepra reaction.
Step 3: Rifampin is effective against leprosy but does not have a direct impact on lepra reactions.
Step 4: Minocycline can be used in leprosy treatment but does not have the same dual action as clofazimine.
A nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the health history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination, the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
- A. Nabothian cysts are present.
- B. The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
- C. The cervical surface is granular and red.
- D. Stringy, opaque secretions are present.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The cervical surface is granular and red. This finding indicates inflammation or infection, as a healthy cervix should appear smooth and pink. The presence of granular and red surface could suggest cervicitis or another underlying issue that needs further evaluation or treatment.
A: Nabothian cysts are present - This is a normal finding and does not indicate any abnormality or concern.
B: The cervical os is a horizontal slit - This is a normal anatomical variation and does not indicate any abnormality.
D: Stringy, opaque secretions are present - This can be a normal finding depending on the phase of the menstrual cycle and does not necessarily indicate an abnormality.
The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. A nephron is made up of renal tubules and renal corpuscles, both of which perform different functions. Which of the following parts of the nephron is not correctly paired with its function?
- A. Glomerulus – Filtration of blood
- B. Collecting Ducts – Secretion of water
- C. Loop of Henle – Reabsorption of water
- D. Proximal Convoluted Tubules – Reabsorption of ions and solutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collecting Ducts - Secretion of water. Collecting ducts are responsible for reabsorption of water, not secretion. The other choices are correctly paired: A) Glomerulus filters blood, C) Loop of Henle reabsorbs water, D) Proximal Convoluted Tubules reabsorb ions and solutes. Collecting ducts play a crucial role in concentrating urine by reabsorbing water under the influence of hormones like ADH.
Which statement accurately describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
- A. The primary function of GFR is to excrete nitrogenous waste products.
- B. Decreased permeability in the glomerulus causes loss of proteins into the urine.
- C. The GFR is primarily dependent on adequate blood flow and adequate hydrostatic pressure.
- D. The GFR is decreased when prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased renal blood flow.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Adequate blood flow is essential for GFR as it ensures efficient filtration of blood in the glomerulus.
2. Adequate hydrostatic pressure within the glomerulus is needed to push filtrate into the tubules.
3. If blood flow or hydrostatic pressure is inadequate, GFR will decrease.
4. Option A is incorrect as GFR primarily filters blood, not excretes waste products.
5. Option B is incorrect as increased permeability in the glomerulus leads to protein loss, not decreased.
6. Option D is incorrect as prostaglandins causing vasodilation would increase, not decrease, GFR.
Summary:
The correct answer is C because GFR is primarily dependent on adequate blood flow and hydrostatic pressure. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the factors affecting GFR.
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