Nokea
Regarding resuscitation of a three-year old with asystole:
- A. Hypoxia is the commonest cause
- B. It commonly leads to ventricular fibrillation
- C. Intracardiac adrenaline is an absolute indication
- D. IV calcium gluconate is the first line of therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypoxia is the most common cause of asystole in children, emphasizing the importance of oxygenation during resuscitation.
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All of the following are part of acute aortic syndrome, except
- A. Aortic dissection
- B. Acute aortic regurgitation
- C. Intramural hematoma
- D. Penetrating atherosclerotic ulcer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute aortic regurgitation is not typically considered part of acute aortic syndrome.
The following conditions can present in a newborn infant as a bullous eruption:
- A. Syphilis
- B. Mast cell disease
- C. Epidermolysis bullosa
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epidermolysis bullosa is a genetic condition causing blistering of the skin. Syphilis and mast cell disease can also cause bullous eruptions, but phenylketonuria does not.
Regarding iron deficiency anemia, which of the following is true?
- A. Ferritin levels are elevated
- B. Red blood cell count is usually normal
- C. Hemoglobin is usually decreased
- D. Serum iron levels are elevated
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In iron deficiency anemia, hemoglobin levels are usually decreased due to insufficient iron for red blood cell production.
Which finding might delay a cardiac catheterization procedure on a 1-year-old?
- A. 30th percentile for weight
- B. Severe diaper rash
- C. Allergy to soy
- D. Oxygen saturation of 91% on room air
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A severe diaper rash may indicate potential infection, which is a contraindication for the standard groin approach during catheterization.
An adult female with multiple sclerosis (MS) falls while walking to the bathroom. On transfer to the intensive care unit, she is confused and has had projectile vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine client's last dose of corticosteroids
- B. Determine neurological baseline prior to the fall
- C. Administer a PRN IV antiemetic as prescribed
- D. Complete head to toe neurological assessment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms suggest increased intracranial pressure or a neurological emergency. A thorough neurological assessment is necessary to identify the cause and guide further interventions.