Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal illness associated with liver failure and encephalopathy is associated with the administration of which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?
- A. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. ibuprofen (Motrin)
- C. aspirin
- D. brompheniramine/pseudoephedrine (Dimetapp)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reye's syndrome is linked to the use of aspirin in children and adolescents, particularly during viral infections. It causes severe liver and brain damage. Acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and antihistamines are not associated with this condition. Avoiding aspirin in pediatric patients is critical to prevent this rare but life-threatening syndrome.
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Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances
- A. decoction
- B. fluid extract
- C. solution
- D. spirits
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A spirit is an alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances obtained by distillation. It is commonly used in the production of alcoholic beverages and in the pharmaceutical industry for preparing tinctures and extracts. Spirits are characterized by their high alcohol content and ability to extract and preserve the properties of the substances they are derived from. Decoction is a method of extracting compounds from plants using boiling water, fluid extract is a concentrated liquid extract of a substance, solution refers to a homogeneous mixture of substances, and syrup is a thick, sweet liquid usually made by dissolving sugar in water.
The nurse observes a short period of asystole on the cardiac monitor that resolves spontaneously immediately after administering adenosine IV to a patient who was experiencing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Which initial action is the most appropriate for the nurse?
- A. Call a code to report a cardiac arrest.
- B. Prepare epinephrine and atropine for intravenous administration.
- C. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
- D. Closely observe the patient and the cardiac monitor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Adenosine is used to treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) by temporarily blocking AV node conduction, which can cause a brief period of asystole. This is an expected effect and typically resolves spontaneously. The nurse should closely monitor the patient and the cardiac monitor for the return of a normal rhythm. Calling a code (A), preparing epinephrine and atropine (B), or initiating CPR (C) is unnecessary unless the asystole persists or the patient becomes unstable.
Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Deficient knowledge
- C. Deficient fluid volume
- D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics would be Deficient fluid volume. Antidysrhythmics can have side effects such as electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to fluid volume deficit. Monitoring the patient's fluid intake and output is crucial to prevent dehydration and maintain proper electrolyte balance. Therefore, identifying Deficient fluid volume as a nursing diagnosis allows for appropriate interventions to be implemented to address and prevent this potential complication.
A patient requires a nonopioid medication. The nurse knows that which medication will cause the least gastrointestinal distress?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Ketorolac
- C. Celecoxib
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, which means it primarily targets the COX-2 enzyme involved in inflammation and pain while sparing the COX-1 enzyme that protects the stomach lining. This selectivity reduces the risk of gastrointestinal distress, such as ulcers and bleeding, compared to non-selective NSAIDs like aspirin, ketorolac, and ibuprofen. Therefore, celecoxib is the best choice for patients who require a nonopioid medication with minimal gastrointestinal side effects. Nurses should consider this when selecting pain management options for patients with a history of gastrointestinal issues.
Penicillin's effectiveness against rapidly growing cell is primarily due to its effect on what?
- A. protein synthesis
- B. chelation of metal ions
- C. cell wall synthesis
- D. cell membrane permeability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that works by disrupting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. Bacterial cells have a cell wall that provides structural support and protection. The cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan, a complex molecule that gives the cell wall its strength. Penicillin interferes with the formation of peptidoglycan by inhibiting the enzyme transpeptidase, which is essential for cross-linking the peptidoglycan strands. As a result, bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure and eventually burst, leading to their death. This mechanism of action is particularly effective against rapidly growing bacterial cells because they are actively synthesizing new cell wall components to keep up with their growth. Thus, penicillin's primary effectiveness against rapidly growing cells is primarily due to its disruption of cell wall synthesis.