Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Decreased respirations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. Salicylic acid can lead to systemic toxicity, known as salicylism, which may manifest with symptoms like tinnitus, dizziness, hyperventilation, and mental disturbances. Tinnitus is a common early sign of salicylism and should be monitored closely by the nurse to prevent further complications.
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The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Chest pain
- C. Pulmonary fibrosis
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Orthostatic hypotension.' Etoposide is associated with orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur when transitioning from lying down to standing up. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure during the infusion to detect and manage this potential side effect.
Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:
- A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
- B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
- C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
- D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.
The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
- B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
- C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will:
- A. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day.
- B. Take the daily dose at bedtime.
- C. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval.
- D. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking theophylline at bedtime is inappropriate because it can cause insomnia. The medication should be taken early in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep patterns. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of the medication to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.
Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?
- A. Neuralgia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Use of nitroglycerin
- D. Use of multivitamins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.
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