Nokea
Schedule II drugs are characterized by:
- A. High potential for abuse
- B. Low potential for abuse
- C. No accepted medical use
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because Schedule II drugs (e.g., oxycodone) have a high abuse potential with accepted medical use, per DEA rules. Choice B is incorrect as low potential is Schedule IV/V. Choice C is wrong because no medical use is Schedule I. Choice D is incorrect since only A applies.
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Off-label use of drugs is:
- A. Illegal
- B. Regulated by the FDA
- C. Permitted with scientific evidence
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because off-label use is legal and common, permitted with scientific backing or clinical judgment, not FDA-regulated post-approval. Choice A is incorrect as it's not illegal. Choice B is wrong because FDA doesn't regulate off-label practice. Choice D is incorrect since only C applies.
Schedule II drugs are characterized by:
- A. High potential for abuse
- B. Low potential for abuse
- C. No accepted medical use
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because Schedule II drugs (e.g., oxycodone) have a high abuse potential with accepted medical use, per DEA rules. Choice B is incorrect as low potential is Schedule IV/V. Choice C is wrong because no medical use is Schedule I. Choice D is incorrect since only A applies.
A 4-month-old infant has a viral illness with high fever and cough. The infant's parent asks the NP about what to give the infant to help with symptoms. The NP should prescribe which of the following?
- A. Aspirin to treat the fever
- B. Acetaminophen as needed
- C. Dextromethorphan for coughing
- D. An antibiotic to prevent increased infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because acetaminophen is safe for infants to reduce fever. Choice A is incorrect (aspirin risks Reye’s syndrome). Choice C is wrong (dextromethorphan risks respiratory depression). Choice D is inaccurate (antibiotics don’t treat viral illness).
Drugs that are affected by genetic polymorphisms of UGT1A1 include:
- A. Warfarin
- B. Irinotecan
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because irinotecan's active metabolite is glucuronidated by UGT1A1; poor function increases toxicity, requiring genetic consideration. Choice A is incorrect as warfarin's metabolism is via CYP2C9, not UGT1A1. Choice C is wrong because acetaminophen uses other UGT enzymes, not specifically UGT1A1 critically. Choice D is incorrect since only irinotecan is notably affected by UGT1A1 polymorphisms.
Women who are prescribed drugs that are known teratogens should:
- A. Use effective contraception
- B. Avoid breastfeeding
- C. Increase their vitamin intake
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because teratogenic drugs can harm a fetus, so effective contraception is essential to prevent pregnancy during treatment, per safety guidelines. Choice B is incorrect as breastfeeding avoidance applies post-delivery, not during prescribing. Choice C is wrong because increasing vitamins doesn't mitigate teratogenic risk. Choice D is incorrect since only contraception directly addresses the primary risk.