Select the 3 findings that require immediate follow-up.
- A. Lateral deviation of the uterus
- B. Deep tendon reflexes 1+
- C. Pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 (increased)
- D. Peripheral edema 2+ bilateral lower extremities
- E. Uterine tone soft
- F. Large amount of lochia rubra
- G. Blood pressure 136/86 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A lateral deviation of the uterus could indicate a potential complication such as uterine inversion. Deep tendon reflexes being 1+ may suggest hyporeflexia, which could be a sign of neurological issues. A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10, especially if increased, may indicate worsening pain that needs immediate attention. Choices D, E, F, and G do not require immediate follow-up as they are not indicative of urgent conditions. Peripheral edema 2+ bilateral lower extremities may be normal postpartum. Uterine tone being soft is expected in the postpartum period. A large amount of lochia rubra is typically seen in the immediate postpartum period. Blood pressure of 136/86 mm Hg is within normal limits for a postpartum patient.
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A nurse is teaching about home safety with a client who is 2 days postpartum. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Bathe your baby immediately after a feeding.
- B. Place a bumper pad in your baby’s crib.
- C. Put a soft mattress in your baby’s crib.
- D. Wash your baby’s face with plain water.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wash your baby's face with plain water. This instruction is important because newborns have sensitive skin that can easily become irritated by soaps or cleansers. Using plain water is gentle and safe for the baby's delicate skin. Additionally, washing the baby's face helps to keep the area clean and prevent any buildup of milk or debris that can lead to skin irritation or infections.
Choice A is incorrect because bathing a baby immediately after a feeding can increase the risk of spitting up or discomfort due to handling on a full stomach. Choice B is incorrect as bumper pads pose a suffocation risk for infants. Choice C is incorrect because a soft mattress can increase the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Protective environment
- D. Airborne
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact precautions. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is typically spread through direct contact with contaminated skin or surfaces. Therefore, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes wearing gloves and a gown when providing care to the client, as well as ensuring proper hand hygiene.
Choice A (Droplet precautions) is incorrect because MRSA is not transmitted through droplets in the air. Choice C (Protective environment) is incorrect as this type of isolation is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens. Choice D (Airborne precautions) is incorrect as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route.
A nurse is caring for a client who is hypotensive following the administration of epidural anesthesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Turn the client to a side-lying position.
- B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- C. Massage the client’s fundus.
- D. Assist the client to empty their bladder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Turn the client to a side-lying position. This action helps improve venous return to the heart, which can increase blood pressure. Placing the client on their side can prevent compression of the vena cava by the uterus, reducing hypotension. Options B and D are not directly related to managing hypotension. Option C is incorrect as massaging the fundus is typically done postpartum to prevent hemorrhage.
A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client who is pregnant and is taking digoxin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to best evaluate the client’s medication adherence?
- A. Ask the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed.
- B. Assess the client’s kidney function.
- C. Determine the client’s apical pulse rate.
- D. Check the client’s serum medication level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the client's serum medication level. This is the best way to evaluate medication adherence for digoxin. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range, so monitoring the serum level ensures the client is taking the correct dose. Choices A, B, and C do not directly assess medication adherence for digoxin. Asking the client may not reflect the actual medication intake, kidney function assessment is important but not for adherence evaluation, and apical pulse rate may be affected by various factors. Checking the serum level provides objective data on the drug concentration in the body, indicating adherence.
A nurse is preparing to administer metronidazole 2 g PO to a client who has trichomoniasis. Available is metronidazole 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
- A. 8 tablets
- B. 4 Tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 tablets. To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dose (2 g) by the strength of each tablet (250 mg). 2 g is equal to 2000 mg. 2000 mg ÷ 250 mg = 8 tablets. Therefore, the nurse should administer 8 tablets of metronidazole. Choice B (4 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct dose of 2 g. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as well, as it only provides half of the required dose. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect because it does not meet the prescribed dosage of 2 g.