Nokea
Select the 3 findings that require immediate follow-up.
- A. Lateral deviation of the uterus
- B. Deep tendon reflexes 1+
- C. Pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 (increased)
- D. Peripheral edema 2+ bilateral lower extremities
- E. Uterine tone soft
- F. Large amount of lochia rubra
- G. Blood pressure 136/86 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct choices for immediate follow-up are A, B, and C. A lateral deviation of the uterus could indicate a potential complication like uterine prolapse. Deep tendon reflexes 1+ could suggest a neurological issue or electrolyte imbalance. A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 (increased) requires further assessment to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. Choices D, E, F, and G are not as urgent. Peripheral edema 2+ bilateral lower extremities could be indicative of fluid retention, which may need monitoring but not immediate intervention. Soft uterine tone may be expected postpartum, and a large amount of lochia rubra could be normal after birth. A blood pressure of 136/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated but not critically high, so it may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up.
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A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Minimal arm recoil
- B. Popliteal angle of 90°
- C. Creases over the entire foot sole
- D. Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 26 weeks of gestation, newborns are expected to have minimal arm recoil based on the New Ballard Score, as their muscle tone is typically low. This indicates immaturity and aligns with the developmental stage of a premature infant. The other choices are incorrect because: B: A popliteal angle of 90° is more indicative of a term infant. C: Creases over the entire foot sole are also seen in term infants, not premature infants. D: Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds are associated with breast development in term infants, not preterm infants.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the FHR.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer Rho(D) immune globulin. This is the priority intervention following an amniocentesis in an Rh-negative client at 15 weeks gestation to prevent Rh isoimmunization. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent the mother's immune system from forming antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood cells, which could lead to hemolytic disease in the newborn. Checking the client's temperature (A) is not the priority as there is no immediate risk related to the procedure. Observing for uterine contractions (B) is important but not the priority immediately post-procedure. Monitoring the FHR (D) is important but not the priority at this time.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Coombs test result
- B. Mucous membrane assessment
- C. Intake and output
- D. Respiratory rate
- E. Head assessment finding
- F. Heart rate
- G. Sclera color
Correct Answer: A,B,C,G
Rationale: The correct answers to report to the provider are A, B, C, and G. A Coombs test result should be reported as it indicates potential hemolytic anemia. Mucous membrane assessment is crucial for hydration status and oxygenation. Intake and output levels are key indicators of kidney function and hydration status. Sclera color can indicate liver function or anemia. Choices D, E, and F are important assessments but do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are outside of normal ranges and affecting the patient's condition.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation and adheres to a vegan diet. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the client’s dietary intake?
- A. How much protein do you eat in a day?
- B. Are you taking a Vitamin C supplement?
- C. Have you considered eating shellfish?
- D. When was the last time you ate meat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: How much protein do you eat in a day? This question is important because a vegan diet may lack sufficient protein, which is crucial for fetal development during pregnancy. Protein intake should be monitored to ensure the client is meeting their nutritional needs.
Incorrect choices:
B: Are you taking a Vitamin C supplement? - While Vitamin C is important, assessing protein intake is more critical for a vegan diet.
C: Have you considered eating shellfish? - Shellfish is not suitable for a vegan diet.
D: When was the last time you ate meat? - Irrelevant for a vegan client.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has uterine atony. The client is exhibiting a large amount of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer betamethasone IM.
- B. Avoid performing sterile vaginal examinations.
- C. Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol.
- D. Obtain a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C, anticipating a prescription for misoprostol, is correct. Misoprostol helps to contract the uterus and control bleeding in cases of uterine atony postpartum. Administering betamethasone (A) is used for fetal lung development, not for uterine atony. Avoiding sterile vaginal exams (B) is not helpful in managing uterine atony. Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test (D) is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not to manage uterine atony.