Select the findings that indicate the interventions have been effective.
- A. Client rates pain with contractions as a 3 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Contractions occurring every 2.5 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 to 70 seconds
- C. Accelerations present, no decelerations noted
- D. Heart rate 88/min
- E. Blood pressure 122/80 mm Hg
- F. Temperature 38° C(100.4° F)
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Effective pain relief (client rates pain as 3) and normal FHR patterns indicate successful interventions.
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Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Elevate the clients arm prior to insertion.
- B. Select a site on the client's dominant arm.
- C. Apply a tourniquet below the venipuncture site.
- D. Choose a vein that is palpable and straight.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Choose a vein that is palpable and straight. This is important because a palpable and straight vein ensures successful venipuncture and reduces the risk of complications such as infiltration or hematoma formation. Elevating the client's arm (A) may help visualize veins but does not guarantee choosing a suitable vein. Selecting a site on the client's dominant arm (B) is not necessary as both arms have suitable veins. Applying a tourniquet below the venipuncture site (C) can obstruct blood flow and distort the vein. Therefore, the best approach is to choose a vein that is palpable and straight for a successful venipuncture.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Pain at the surgical site
- C. Mild nausea
- D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea in a postoperative client with a history of pulmonary embolism indicates a potential complication, such as a recurrent or new pulmonary embolism, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention to prevent worsening respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Pain at the surgical site (choice B) is expected postoperatively and can be managed with appropriate pain medications. Mild nausea (choice C) is a common postoperative symptom and can be managed with antiemetic medications. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) (choice D) may indicate a mild fever, which can be monitored unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client whose child died from cancer. The client states 'it's hard to go on without him'. which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client first?
- A. What has helped you through difficult times in the past?
- B. Has anyone in your family committed suicide?
- C. Is there anyone you would like involved in your care?
- D. Are you thinking about ending your life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Are you thinking about ending your life? This question is crucial as it directly addresses the client's statement about finding it hard to go on. It assesses the client's suicidal ideation and determines the level of risk for self-harm or suicide. It prioritizes the client's safety and well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly address the immediate concern of potential suicide risk. Choice B is irrelevant and may lead to unnecessary distress for the client. Choice C is important but not as urgent as assessing for suicidal ideation.
Select the 2 findings that require immediate follow-up.
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Duration of contraction
- C. Fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal station
- E. Characteristics of amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: An elevated fetal heart rate and meconium-stained amniotic fluid indicate potential distress, necessitating urgent intervention.
Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. The test should be performed after your baby is 24 hours old.
- B. Genetic screening is only necessary if there is a family history of genetic disorders.
- C. Your baby cannot eat before the genetic screening test.
- D. If the first test is abnormal, no further testing is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately states the timing for performing the genetic screening test, which should be after the baby is 24 hours old to ensure accurate results. Choice B is incorrect because genetic screening may be recommended for all newborns, not just those with a family history. Choice C is incorrect because babies can eat before the test. Choice D is incorrect as further testing may be required if the initial results are abnormal.