Nokea
Several nursing students are ordering a poster on the mechanism of the heart. What structure would they label as separating the right half of the heart from the left?
- A. Auricle.
- B. Syncytia.
- C. Bundle of His.
- D. Septum.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Septum. The septum is the structure that separates the right half of the heart from the left, specifically the interatrial septum and interventricular septum. This division is crucial for maintaining the separation of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood to ensure proper circulation. The auricle (A) is an ear-like appendage of the atrium, not a separator of heart chambers. Syncytia (B) refers to a group of cells that function as a single unit, not a physical barrier in the heart. The Bundle of His (C) is part of the heart's conduction system and is responsible for transmitting electrical impulses, not separating heart chambers.
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Anticholinergic drugs are used in Ophthalmology because they produce what effect?
- A. Pupil restriction.
- B. Decreased lacrimal secretions.
- C. Pupil dilation.
- D. Sedation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pupil dilation. Anticholinergic drugs block the action of acetylcholine, leading to pupil dilation by inhibiting the constriction of the sphincter muscle in the iris. This effect is beneficial in ophthalmology for procedures like dilation exams and treating conditions like uveitis. Choice A is incorrect as anticholinergics cause pupil dilation, not restriction. Choice B is incorrect because anticholinergics actually increase lacrimal secretions instead of decreasing them. Choice D is incorrect as sedation is not a typical effect of anticholinergic drugs in ophthalmology.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe recurrent convulsive seizures. Would the nurse expect to order for the use in emergency control of status epileptic?
- A. Ethosuximide (Zarontin).
- B. Diazepam (Valium).
- C. Phenobarbital (Luminal).
- D. Phenytoin (Dilantin).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diazepam (Valium). In emergency situations of status epilepticus, diazepam is the preferred medication for immediate control of seizures due to its fast onset of action and efficacy in stopping prolonged seizures. Diazepam acts by enhancing the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which inhibits excessive neuronal activity. Ethosuximide (A) is used for absence seizures, not convulsive seizures. Phenobarbital (C) and phenytoin (D) have slower onset of action and are not ideal for immediate control of seizures.
You are writing a care plan for a patient who is taking anticoagulant. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis?
- A. Maintain narcan on standby.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of any patient receiving this drug.
- C. Evaluate patient for PT for 2.5.
- D. Establish safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Establish safety precautions. This is the appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient taking anticoagulants as they are at an increased risk of bleeding. Safety precautions, such as fall prevention measures and educating the patient about signs of bleeding, are crucial to prevent complications.
A: Maintaining narcan on standby is not relevant to anticoagulant therapy as narcan is used to reverse opioid overdose, not to manage bleeding risk associated with anticoagulants.
B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but it is not a nursing diagnosis. It is a part of the nursing intervention to ensure appropriate management of anticoagulant therapy.
C: Evaluating the patient for PT (prothrombin time) of 2.5 is a specific laboratory value, not a nursing diagnosis. It is important for monitoring anticoagulant therapy effectiveness.
Summary: Option D is correct as it focuses on patient safety in the context of anticoagulant therapy
What is the responsibility of the nurse related to the patient's drug therapy? Select all that apply.
- A. Teaching the patient how to cope with therapy to ensure the best outcome.
- B. Altering the drug regime to optimize the outcome.
- C. Evaluating the effectiveness of therapy.
- D. Providing therapy as well as medications.
- E. Recommending over-the-counter medications to treat adverse effects of prescription drug therapy.
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A and C. A nurse's responsibility related to a patient's drug therapy includes teaching the patient how to cope with therapy for optimal outcomes (A) and evaluating the effectiveness of the therapy (C). Teaching the patient ensures they understand how to take medications correctly and manage any side effects. Evaluating effectiveness allows for adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Choices B, D, and E are incorrect. B - altering the drug regime should be done by the prescribing healthcare provider, not the nurse. D - providing therapy is beyond the scope of a nurse's responsibilities, as they focus on administering medications and supporting the patient. E - recommending over-the-counter medications falls under the purview of a pharmacist or physician, not a nurse.
A patient who has epilepsy will begin an anticonvulsant medication. The patient asks the nurse how long the medication will be necessary. How will the nurse respond?
- A. You will take the medication as needed for seizure activity.
- B. The medication will be given until you are seizure free.
- C. You will take the medication for 3 to 5 years.
- D. The medication is usually taken for a lifetime.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The medication is usually taken for a lifetime. The rationale for this is that epilepsy is a chronic condition characterized by recurrent seizures. Anticonvulsant medications are typically prescribed long-term to help control and prevent seizures. Discontinuing the medication can lead to breakthrough seizures and potential risks to the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A and B are incorrect because anticonvulsants are not typically taken on an as-needed basis and the goal is not just to be seizure-free temporarily. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of anticonvulsant therapy may vary depending on the individual's condition and response to treatment, but it is often longer than 3 to 5 years.