Nokea
Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first?
- A. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who reports his eyes always look somewhat yellow
- B. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- C. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- D. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's young age and the presence of a nontender lump in the axilla raise concerns for possible lymphoma, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. This patient should be seen first to rule out any serious underlying condition. Choice A is less urgent as yellowish eyes in sickle cell anemia may be due to jaundice but not necessarily an acute issue. Choice C, a 50-year-old with chronic fatigue related to early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia, is a known condition that can be managed on a routine basis. Choice D, a 19-year-old with hemophilia wanting to self-administer factor VII replacement, is important but less urgent compared to the potential lymphoma presentation in choice B.
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A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
After a patient with pancytopenia undergoes a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest, which action would be important for the nurse to take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- B. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
- C. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
- D. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a bone marrow aspiration, it is important to have the patient lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes to decrease the risk of bleeding. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees does not directly address the risk of bleeding. Applying a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site is important for wound care but does not specifically address post-procedural positioning. Using a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound is not necessary after a bone marrow aspiration.
A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
- A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
- B. Petechiae are present on the chest
- C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
- D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.
Which task for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
- A. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection
- B. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions
- C. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection
- D. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering subcutaneous medications falls within the education and scope of practice of an LPN/LVN. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, teaching the patient, and developing a discharge plan are tasks that require an RN level of education and scope of practice. LPN/LVNs can assist in patient care, but tasks that involve assessment, teaching, and care planning are typically the responsibility of an RN.
A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
- A. Have you had any recent weight loss?
- B. Do you have any history of lung disease?
- C. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?
- D. What is your dietary intake of meats and proteins?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Do you have any history of lung disease?" The elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels suggest polycythemia, which can be seen in conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Option A is less relevant as weight loss is not typically associated with these blood count findings. Option C is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than a respiratory issue. Option D focuses on dietary factors, which are less likely to cause such significant elevations in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as seen in this case.