Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:
- A. hepatic clearance.
- B. total clearance.
- C. enterohepatic cycling.
- D. first-pass effect.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'enterohepatic cycling.' This process involves drugs being excreted into bile, delivered to the intestines, reabsorbed into the circulation, and can prolong the drug's presence in the body. 'Hepatic clearance' (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. 'Total clearance' (Choice B) is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. 'First-pass effect' (Choice D) is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing the amount of drug available for systemic circulation.
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The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause:
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Melanoma
- D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If the client eats foods high in tyramine, he might experience malignant hypertension. Tyramine is found in cheese, sour cream, Chianti wine, sherry, beer, pickled herring, liver, canned figs, raisins, bananas, avocados, chocolate, soy sauce, fava beans, and yeast. These episodes are treated with Regitine, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated to the question: Hyperthermia is excessive body temperature, melanoma is a type of skin cancer, and urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder.
A twenty-one-year-old man suffered a concussion, and the MD ordered an MRI. The patient asks, 'Will they allow me to sit up during the MRI?' The correct response by the nurse should be:
- A. "I will have to talk to the doctor about letting you sit upright during the test."?
- B. "You will be positioned in the reverse Trendelenburg position to maximize the view of the brain."?
- C. "The radiologist will let you know."?
- D. "You will have to lie down on your back during the test."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the patient that they will have to lie down on their back during the MRI. This positioning is necessary for the scan to obtain accurate images of the brain. Choice A is incorrect because the decision on the positioning during the MRI is typically determined by the imaging protocol and not subject to negotiation during the test. Choice B is incorrect as the reverse Trendelenburg position is not commonly used during MRI scans. Choice C is incorrect because the radiologist does not usually make decisions on patient positioning during the MRI; it is predetermined by the imaging requirements.
A client reports that someone is in the room and trying to kill him. The nurse's best response is:
- A. "No one is in your room. Let's get you more medicine."?
- B. "I do not see anyone, but you seem to be very frightened."?
- C. "No one can hurt you here."?
- D. "Just tell the person to go away."?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client reports hallucinations or delusions, it is crucial to respond in a non-confrontational and empathetic manner. Choice B acknowledges the client's fear without confirming the delusion, showing understanding, and providing reassurance. This response validates the client's feelings without reinforcing the false belief. The other responses in choices A, C, and D dismiss the client's feelings or perceptions, which can escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship.
Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?
- A. IV infiltration may occur.
- B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
- C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
- D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.
Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:
- A. thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
- B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
- C. estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
- D. glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.