A nurse is educating a prenatal client on pregnancy 140 to 90 bpm that begins with the contraction changes and her gastrointestinal system. Which and gradually returns to the normal baseline statement is correct?
- A. Because of increased saliva production during related to? pregnancy, the client should use a medium to hard
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency toothbrush to prevent plaque.
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Heartburn may be relieved by sitting up after
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heartburn may be relieved by sitting up after. This is because during pregnancy, the growing uterus can push stomach acids upward, causing heartburn. Sitting up after eating can help prevent acid reflux by allowing gravity to keep stomach contents down.
Choice A is incorrect as increased saliva production during pregnancy is not related to toothbrush hardness. Choice B is incorrect because uteroplacental insufficiency is not related to the client's gastrointestinal system. Choice C is incorrect as umbilical cord compression is a separate issue and not related to heartburn relief.
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What is the appropriate intervention for a mother with a third-degree perineal tear postpartum?
- A. Apply ice packs to the perineum
- B. Administer stool softeners as prescribed
- C. Encourage the mother to avoid heavy lifting
- D. Provide perineal exercises for faster recovery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Encourage the mother to avoid heavy lifting. After a third-degree perineal tear, it is crucial to prevent strain on the perineum to promote healing and prevent complications like infection or further tearing. Heavy lifting can increase pressure on the perineum, leading to delayed healing. Ice packs (A) may help reduce swelling initially but do not address the underlying issue. Stool softeners (B) can help prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements but do not directly impact perineal tear healing. Perineal exercises (D) are beneficial for strengthening the pelvic floor muscles in general but should be introduced gradually and not immediately postpartum with a severe tear.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has a diagnosis of group B streptococcus B-hemolytic infection. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ampicill in
- B. Azithro mycin
- C. Ceftriax one
- D. Acyclov ir
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ampicillin. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) infection during labor is typically treated with intravenous antibiotics like ampicillin to prevent transmission to the newborn. Ampicillin is the first-line treatment for GBS during labor due to its effectiveness in eradicating the bacteria and reducing the risk of neonatal infection. Azithromycin (B) is not typically used for GBS infection during labor. Ceftriaxone (C) is not the preferred antibiotic for GBS during labor. Acyclovir (D) is used to treat viral infections, not bacterial infections like GBS.
A postpartum client is getting ready to receive a Depo-Provera injection. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching by the nurse is necessary?
- A. You will give this shot just like the rubella injection I received yesterday.
- B. I will watch my weight and try to exercise daily after receiving this injection.
- C. I will need to reschedule a follow-up appointment in 3 months.
- D. It might take me a year to get pregnant after receiving this type of birth control.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's comparison of receiving a Depo-Provera injection to a rubella injection is incorrect. Depo-Provera is a hormonal contraceptive injection that does not have the same administration process or purpose as a rubella vaccination. This indicates a lack of understanding about the medication.
Choice B is not the correct answer because it shows the client's awareness of the importance of weight management and exercise in conjunction with receiving the injection.
Choice C is not the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need for a follow-up appointment in 3 months which is necessary for monitoring and continuation of the contraceptive method.
Choice D is not the correct answer because it shows the client's understanding of the potential delay in fertility after discontinuing Depo-Provera, which is an important aspect of the contraceptive method that the client should be aware of.
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected chorioamnionitis. What is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Assess for foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
- B. Monitor maternal blood pressure.
- C. Evaluate fetal heart rate.
- D. Check maternal glucose levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evaluate fetal heart rate. In chorioamnionitis, fetal distress can occur due to infection and inflammation of the fetal membranes. Monitoring fetal heart rate is crucial to assess the well-being of the baby. Assessing for foul-smelling discharge (A) is important but not the priority. Monitoring maternal blood pressure (B) and checking glucose levels (D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate risk of fetal distress in chorioamnionitis.
Upon delivery of the newborn, the nursing intervention that most promotes parental attachment is:
- A. Placing the infant under the radiant warmer
- B. Allowing the mother to rest immediately after delivery
- C. Placing the newborn on mother's chest and abdomen
- D. Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Placing the newborn on mother's chest and abdomen. This promotes parental attachment through skin-to-skin contact, facilitating bonding and emotional connection. It also helps regulate the baby's temperature and encourage breastfeeding. Placing the infant under the radiant warmer (A) may disrupt immediate bonding. Allowing the mother to rest (B) is important, but promoting attachment should be prioritized. Taking the newborn to the nursery (D) can delay the crucial bonding process.